Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating
Last Answer : B. Vasopressor
Description : Benefit afforded by certain H1 antihistaminics in the following condition is not based on antagonism of histamine: A. Dermographism B. Insect bite C. Common cold D. Seasonal hay fever
Last Answer : C. Common cold
Description : H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in: A. All types of allergic disorders B. Certain type I allergic reactions only C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only D. Bronchial asthma
Last Answer : B. Certain type I allergic reactions only
Description : The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action
Last Answer : D. Good antipruritic action
Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine
Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine
Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug
Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug
Description : While prescribing the conventional H1 antihistaminics the patient should be advised to avoid (a) Driving motor vehicles (b) Consuming processed cheese (c) Strenuous physical exertion (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles
Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
Description : Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist: A. 4-methyl histamine B. Impromidine C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine D. Chlorpheniramine
Last Answer : C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine
Description : Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis: A. Loratadine B. Cetirizine C. Fexofenadine D. Azelastine
Last Answer : D. Azelastine
Description : Fexofenadine differs from terfenadine in that: A. It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver B. It is a prodrug C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels D. It has high affinity for central H1 receptors
Last Answer : C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels
Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more commonly used than colchicine in acute gout because: A. They are more effective B. They act more rapidly C. They have additional uricosuric action D. They are better tolerated
Last Answer : D. They are better tolerated
Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar
Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis
Description : The NSAIDs aggravate the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Congestive heart failure C. Peptic ulcer D. Chronic gout
Last Answer : D. Chronic gout
Description : Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except: A. Prolongation of bleeding time B. Prolongation of prothrombin time C. Prolongation of labour D. Gastric mucosal damage
Last Answer : B. Prolongation of prothrombin time
Description : Prostaglandins play pathophysiological role in the following except: A. Patency of ductus arteriosus B. Regulation of renal tubular salt absorption C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction D. Initiation of labour
Last Answer : C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction
Description : Actions of prostaglandin E2 include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Bronchoconstriction C. Uterine contraction D. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
Last Answer : B. Bronchoconstriction
Description : To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity
Last Answer : A. Strong local anaesthetic activity
Description : H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in (a) All types of allergic disorders (b) Certain type I allergic reactions only (c) Anaphylactic shock(d) Bronchial asthma
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by (a) H1 antihistaminics alone (b) H2 ANTAgonists alone (c) Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists (d) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above
Last Answer : C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists
Description : The following is not a feature of second generation antihistaminics: A. Nonimpairment of psychomotor performance B. High antimotion sickness activity C. Absence of anticholinergic/anti5 -HTa ctions D. Additional mechanisms of antiallergic action
Last Answer : B. High antimotion sickness activity
Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine
Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine
Description : Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is ... treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment
Last Answer : D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment
Description : Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol
Last Answer : D. Allopurinol
Description : Probenecid has the following action(s): A. Uricosuric B. Analgesic C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : A. Uricosuric
Description : The most important dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine is: A. Sedation B. Kidney damage C. Diarrhoea D. Muscle paralysis
Last Answer : C. Diarrhoea
Description : Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor antiinflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout: A. Prednisolone B. Colchicine C. Naproxen D. Sulfinpyrazone
Last Answer : B. Colchicine
Description : Select the first choice drug for acute gout: A. Cochicine B. Indomethacin C. Allopurinol D. Dexamethasone
Last Answer : B. Indomethacin
Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended
Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy
Description : Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive ... to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication
Last Answer : B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease
Description : Sulfasalazine is used in the following disease(s): A. Bacillary dysentery B. Ulcerative colitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Used as a remission inducing agent in rheumatoid arthritis, hydroxychloroquine: A. Is more effective than chloroquine B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine C. Is more effective and more toxic than gold D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine
Description : Among the following, choose the NSAID with the highest COX-2 selectivity: A. Nimesulide B. Nabumetone C. Rofecoxib D. Celecoxib
Last Answer : C. Rofecoxib
Description : The patient taking the following non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug should be cautioned not to drive motor vehicle: A. Celecoxib B. Indomethacin C. Naproxen D. Diclofenac sodium
Description : Which of the following analgesics itself frequently causes headache as a side effect: A. Indomethacin B. Mephenamic acid C. Piroxicam D. Metamizol
Last Answer : A. Indomethacin
Description : Phenylbutazone should be used only in patients not responding to other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because: A. It has lower antiinflammatory efficacy than other NSAIDs B. It has potential ... It has weak analgesic action D. It alters the protein binding and metabolism of many drugs
Last Answer : B. It has potential to cause agranulocytosis
Description : Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks
Last Answer : D. All of the above risks
Description : In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is: A. Acid-base and electrolyte disturbances B. Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions C. Gastric mucosal damage D. Salicylism
Last Answer : C. Gastric mucosal damage
Description : Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis does not underlie the following action of aspirin: A. Analgesia B. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus C. Hyperventilation D. Bleeding tendency
Last Answer : C. Hyperventilation