Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2
Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4
Description : Choose the correct statement about sumatriptan: A. It activates serotonergic neurones in raphe nuclei B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine C. It does not carry risk of precipitating coronary vasospasm D. It is combined with ergotamine for treatment of severe migraine
Last Answer : B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine
Description : The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor: A. 5-HT1 B. 5-HT2 C. 5-HT3 D. 5-HT4
Last Answer : C. 5-HT3
Description : Actions of 5-HT2 receptor activation are primarily mediated by: A. Increased membrane permeability to Na+ ions B. Increased formation of cAMP C. Activation of guanylyl cyclase D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols
Last Answer : D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols
Description : The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT
Last Answer : C. Sumatriptan
Description : Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist: A. 4-methyl histamine B. Impromidine C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine D. Chlorpheniramine
Last Answer : C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine
Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon
Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide
Description : Cisapride enhances gastrointestinal motility by: A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor B. Activating muscarinic M3 receptor C. Blocking dopamine D2 receptor D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor
Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation
Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor
Last Answer : B. Serotonin
Description : The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation
Last Answer : B. Bradycardia
Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil
Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones
Description : e primary mechanism by which general anaesthetics produce their action is: A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones B. Blocking voltage sensitive Na+ channels in neuronal ... activity of cerebral neurones D. Blocking production of high energy phosphates in the brain
Last Answer : A. Affecting receptor operated ion channels in cerebral neurones
Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine
Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine
Description : Dysmenorrhoea is often associated with excess production of the following autacoid by the endometrium: A. Bradykinin B. Prostaglandin C. Platelet activating factor D. 5-Hydroxytryptamine
Last Answer : B. Prostaglandin
Description : The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action
Last Answer : A. High oral bioavailability
Description : The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the: A. Bronchi B. Intestines C. Ureter D. Biliary tract
Last Answer : B. Intestines
Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles
Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug
Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug
Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating
Last Answer : B. Vasopressor
Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine
Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine
Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
Description : Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar
Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis
Description : Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is ... treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment
Last Answer : D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment
Description : Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol
Last Answer : D. Allopurinol
Description : Probenecid has the following action(s): A. Uricosuric B. Analgesic C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : A. Uricosuric
Description : The most important dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine is: A. Sedation B. Kidney damage C. Diarrhoea D. Muscle paralysis
Last Answer : C. Diarrhoea
Description : Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor antiinflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout: A. Prednisolone B. Colchicine C. Naproxen D. Sulfinpyrazone
Last Answer : B. Colchicine
Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more commonly used than colchicine in acute gout because: A. They are more effective B. They act more rapidly C. They have additional uricosuric action D. They are better tolerated
Last Answer : D. They are better tolerated
Description : Select the first choice drug for acute gout: A. Cochicine B. Indomethacin C. Allopurinol D. Dexamethasone
Last Answer : B. Indomethacin
Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended
Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy
Description : Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive ... to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication
Last Answer : B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease
Description : Sulfasalazine is used in the following disease(s): A. Bacillary dysentery B. Ulcerative colitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Used as a remission inducing agent in rheumatoid arthritis, hydroxychloroquine: A. Is more effective than chloroquine B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine C. Is more effective and more toxic than gold D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine
Description : Among the following, choose the NSAID with the highest COX-2 selectivity: A. Nimesulide B. Nabumetone C. Rofecoxib D. Celecoxib
Last Answer : C. Rofecoxib
Description : The patient taking the following non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug should be cautioned not to drive motor vehicle: A. Celecoxib B. Indomethacin C. Naproxen D. Diclofenac sodium
Description : Which of the following analgesics itself frequently causes headache as a side effect: A. Indomethacin B. Mephenamic acid C. Piroxicam D. Metamizol
Last Answer : A. Indomethacin
Description : The NSAIDs aggravate the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Congestive heart failure C. Peptic ulcer D. Chronic gout
Last Answer : D. Chronic gout
Description : Phenylbutazone should be used only in patients not responding to other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because: A. It has lower antiinflammatory efficacy than other NSAIDs B. It has potential ... It has weak analgesic action D. It alters the protein binding and metabolism of many drugs
Last Answer : B. It has potential to cause agranulocytosis
Description : Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks
Last Answer : D. All of the above risks
Description : In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is: A. Acid-base and electrolyte disturbances B. Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions C. Gastric mucosal damage D. Salicylism
Last Answer : C. Gastric mucosal damage
Description : Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis does not underlie the following action of aspirin: A. Analgesia B. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus C. Hyperventilation D. Bleeding tendency
Last Answer : C. Hyperventilation
Description : Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation
Last Answer : D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation
Description : Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except: A. Prolongation of bleeding time B. Prolongation of prothrombin time C. Prolongation of labour D. Gastric mucosal damage
Last Answer : B. Prolongation of prothrombin time
Description : Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly: A. Aspirin B. Mephenamic acid C. Naproxen D. Diclofenac
Last Answer : A. Aspirin