Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Autacoids differ from hormones in that:
A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation
of pathological states
B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue
of origin
C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of
generation and release
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
by

Related questions

Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Autacoids differ from hormones in that (a) Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states (b) Autacoids do not have a specific cell/ tissue of origin (c) Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : Autacoids differ from hormones in that (a) Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states (b) Autacoids do not have a specific cell/ tissue of origin (c) Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Description :  Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Last Answer : D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation

The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation

While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles

Actions of 5-HT2 receptor activation are primarily mediated by: A. Increased membrane permeability to Na+ ions B. Increased formation of cAMP C. Activation of guanylyl cyclase D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols

Description : Actions of 5-HT2 receptor activation are primarily mediated by: A. Increased membrane permeability to Na+ ions B. Increased formation of cAMP C. Activation of guanylyl cyclase D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols

Last Answer : D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols

While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more commonly used than colchicine in acute gout because: A. They are more effective B. They act more rapidly C. They have additional uricosuric action D. They are better tolerated

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are more commonly used than colchicine in acute gout because: A. They are more effective B. They act more rapidly C. They have additional uricosuric action D. They are better tolerated

Last Answer : D. They are better tolerated

The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

Hormones act only on specific organs or tissues. These are called (A) Active sites (B) Reaction centre (C) Target organ/Tissue(D) Physiological site HORMONE METABOLISM 231

Description : Hormones act only on specific organs or tissues. These are called (A) Active sites (B) Reaction centre (C) Target organ/Tissue(D) Physiological site HORMONE METABOLISM 231

Last Answer : Answer : C

Sulfasalazine is used in the following disease(s): A. Bacillary dysentery B. Ulcerative colitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Sulfasalazine is used in the following disease(s): A. Bacillary dysentery B. Ulcerative colitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Used as a remission inducing agent in rheumatoid arthritis, hydroxychloroquine: A. Is more effective than chloroquine B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine C. Is more effective and more toxic than gold D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Used as a remission inducing agent in rheumatoid arthritis, hydroxychloroquine: A. Is more effective than chloroquine B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine C. Is more effective and more toxic than gold D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine

Aspirin produces analgesia by: A. Preventing sensitization of peripheral pain receptors B. Affecting gating of pain impulses at spinal level C. Raising pain threshold at subcortical level D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Aspirin produces analgesia by: A. Preventing sensitization of peripheral pain receptors B. Affecting gating of pain impulses at spinal level C. Raising pain threshold at subcortical level D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about sumatriptan: A. It activates serotonergic neurones in raphe nuclei B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine C. It does not carry risk of precipitating coronary vasospasm D. It is combined with ergotamine for treatment of severe migraine

Description : Choose the correct statement about sumatriptan: A. It activates serotonergic neurones in raphe nuclei B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine C. It does not carry risk of precipitating coronary vasospasm D. It is combined with ergotamine for treatment of severe migraine

Last Answer : B. It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine

The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this arm of the surgical stress response? a. Cytokines primarily work locally via direct cell-to-cell communication b. Cytokines are never detectable in the systemic bloodstream c. Cytokines are produced only by immune cells attracted to the site of injury d. Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

Description : The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Cytokines, which are produced at the site of injury by endothelial cells and by diverse immune cells throughout the body, also occupy a pivotal position in the stress response ... act as hormones and spill over into the systemic circulation and become detectable in the bloodstream

What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy

Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease C. Only when NSAIDs fail to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication

Description : Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis: A. In place of NSAIDs in patients who donot tolerate the latter B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive ... to afford symptomatic relief D. In all patients irrespective of disease status/ concurrent medication

Last Answer : B. Along with NSAIDs in patients with progressive disease

Phenylbutazone should be used only in patients not responding to other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because: A. It has lower antiinflammatory efficacy than other NSAIDs B. It has potential to cause agranulocytosis C. It has weak analgesic action D. It alters the protein binding and metabolism of many drugs

Description : Phenylbutazone should be used only in patients not responding to other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because: A. It has lower antiinflammatory efficacy than other NSAIDs B. It has potential ... It has weak analgesic action D. It alters the protein binding and metabolism of many drugs

Last Answer : B. It has potential to cause agranulocytosis

H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in: A. All types of allergic disorders B. Certain type I allergic reactions only C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only D. Bronchial asthma

Description : H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in: A. All types of allergic disorders B. Certain type I allergic reactions only C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only D. Bronchial asthma

Last Answer : B. Certain type I allergic reactions only

Probenecid has the following action(s): A. Uricosuric B. Analgesic C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Probenecid has the following action(s): A. Uricosuric B. Analgesic C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Uricosuric

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Last Answer : B. Vasopressor

The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine

High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine

Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist: A. 4-methyl histamine B. Impromidine C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine D. Chlorpheniramine

Description : Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist: A. 4-methyl histamine B. Impromidine C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine D. Chlorpheniramine

Last Answer : C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine

Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis

Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above

Description : Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is most appropriate: A. No regular medication. Treat attacks of acute gout when they occur with naproxen. B. Regular long-term treatment with naproxen C. Regular long-term treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Description : A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is ... treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Last Answer : D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol

Description : Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol

Last Answer : D. Allopurinol

The most important dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine is: A. Sedation B. Kidney damage C. Diarrhoea D. Muscle paralysis

Description : The most important dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine is: A. Sedation B. Kidney damage C. Diarrhoea D. Muscle paralysis

Last Answer : C. Diarrhoea

Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor antiinflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout: A. Prednisolone B. Colchicine C. Naproxen D. Sulfinpyrazone

Description : Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor antiinflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout: A. Prednisolone B. Colchicine C. Naproxen D. Sulfinpyrazone

Last Answer : B. Colchicine

Select the first choice drug for acute gout: A. Cochicine B. Indomethacin C. Allopurinol D. Dexamethasone

Description : Select the first choice drug for acute gout: A. Cochicine B. Indomethacin C. Allopurinol D. Dexamethasone

Last Answer : B. Indomethacin

Among the following, choose the NSAID with the highest COX-2 selectivity: A. Nimesulide B. Nabumetone C. Rofecoxib D. Celecoxib

Description : Among the following, choose the NSAID with the highest COX-2 selectivity: A. Nimesulide B. Nabumetone C. Rofecoxib D. Celecoxib

Last Answer : C. Rofecoxib

The patient taking the following non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug should be cautioned not to drive motor vehicle: A. Celecoxib B. Indomethacin C. Naproxen D. Diclofenac sodium

Description : The patient taking the following non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug should be cautioned not to drive motor vehicle: A. Celecoxib B. Indomethacin C. Naproxen D. Diclofenac sodium

Last Answer : B. Indomethacin

Which of the following analgesics itself frequently causes headache as a side effect: A. Indomethacin B. Mephenamic acid C. Piroxicam D. Metamizol

Description : Which of the following analgesics itself frequently causes headache as a side effect: A. Indomethacin B. Mephenamic acid C. Piroxicam D. Metamizol

Last Answer : A. Indomethacin

The NSAIDs aggravate the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Congestive heart failure C. Peptic ulcer D. Chronic gout

Description :  The NSAIDs aggravate the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Congestive heart failure C. Peptic ulcer D. Chronic gout

Last Answer : D. Chronic gout

Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Description :  Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Last Answer : D. All of the above risks

In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is: A. Acid-base and electrolyte disturbances B. Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions C. Gastric mucosal damage D. Salicylism

Description :  In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is: A. Acid-base and electrolyte disturbances B. Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions C. Gastric mucosal damage D. Salicylism

Last Answer : C. Gastric mucosal damage

Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis does not underlie the following action of aspirin: A. Analgesia B. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus C. Hyperventilation D. Bleeding tendency

Description : Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis does not underlie the following action of aspirin: A. Analgesia B. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus C. Hyperventilation D. Bleeding tendency

Last Answer : C. Hyperventilation

Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except: A. Prolongation of bleeding time B. Prolongation of prothrombin time C. Prolongation of labour D. Gastric mucosal damage

Description :  Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except: A. Prolongation of bleeding time B. Prolongation of prothrombin time C. Prolongation of labour D. Gastric mucosal damage

Last Answer : B. Prolongation of prothrombin time

Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly: A. Aspirin B. Mephenamic acid C. Naproxen D. Diclofenac

Description : Select the drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly: A. Aspirin B. Mephenamic acid C. Naproxen D. Diclofenac

Last Answer : A. Aspirin

Prolonged airway hyperreactivity is characteristically caused by: A. Histamine B. Prostaglandin E2 C. Platelet activating factor D. Bradykinin

Description :  Prolonged airway hyperreactivity is characteristically caused by: A. Histamine B. Prostaglandin E2 C. Platelet activating factor D. Bradykinin

Last Answer : C. Platelet activating factor

The following drug is used for cervical priming to facilitate labour: A. Oxytocin B. Clomiphene C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandin E2

Description : The following drug is used for cervical priming to facilitate labour: A. Oxytocin B. Clomiphene C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandin E2

Last Answer : D. Prostaglandin E2

Montelukast blocks the action of the following autacoid: A. Prostacyclin B. Platelet activating factor C. Leukotriene B4 D. Leukotriene C4/D4

Description : Montelukast blocks the action of the following autacoid: A. Prostacyclin B. Platelet activating factor C. Leukotriene B4 D. Leukotriene C4/D4

Last Answer : D. Leukotriene C4/D4

The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Description : The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is: A. Vasodilatation B. Uterine contraction C. Platelet aggregation D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Last Answer : D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Prostaglandins play pathophysiological role in the following except: A. Patency of ductus arteriosus B. Regulation of renal tubular salt absorption C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction D. Initiation of labour

Description :  Prostaglandins play pathophysiological role in the following except: A. Patency of ductus arteriosus B. Regulation of renal tubular salt absorption C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction D. Initiation of labour

Last Answer : C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction 

The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation: A. Prostacyclin B. Prostaglandin E2 C. Prostaglandin D2 D. Thromboxane A2

Description : The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation: A. Prostacyclin B. Prostaglandin E2 C. Prostaglandin D2 D. Thromboxane A2

Last Answer : D. Thromboxane A2

Actions of prostaglandin E2 include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Bronchoconstriction C. Uterine contraction D. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

Description : Actions of prostaglandin E2 include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Bronchoconstriction C. Uterine contraction D. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

Last Answer : B. Bronchoconstriction

Dysmenorrhoea is often associated with excess production of the following autacoid by the endometrium: A. Bradykinin B. Prostaglandin C. Platelet activating factor D. 5-Hydroxytryptamine

Description :  Dysmenorrhoea is often associated with excess production of the following autacoid by the endometrium: A. Bradykinin B. Prostaglandin C. Platelet activating factor D. 5-Hydroxytryptamine

Last Answer : B. Prostaglandin