Choose the correct statement about anabolic steroids: A. They are testosterone congeners having anabolic but no androgenic activity B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity C. They are suitable for long-term therapy in children D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about anabolic steroids:
A. They are testosterone congeners having
anabolic but no androgenic activity
B. They are androgens with relatively selective
anabolic activity
C. They are suitable for long-term therapy in
children
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. They are androgens with relatively selective
anabolic activity
by

Related questions

The following is not a legitimate indication for the use of anabolic steroids: A. To enhance the physical ability of sportsmen B. Suboptimal growth in children C. Senile osteoporosis D. Hypoplastic anaemia

Description : The following is not a legitimate indication for the use of anabolic steroids: A. To enhance the physical ability of sportsmen B. Suboptimal growth in children C. Senile osteoporosis D. Hypoplastic anaemia

Last Answer : A. To enhance the physical ability of sportsmen

Select the compound which used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity: A. Tibolone B. Mestranol C. Desogestrel D. Gestodene

Description : Select the compound which used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity: A. Tibolone B. Mestranol C. Desogestrel D. Gestodene

Last Answer : A. Tibolone

Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of androgenic activity: A. Micronized oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Description : Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of ... oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Last Answer : Select the indication for which a progestin is used alone without combining with an estrogen: A. Threatened abortion B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C. Hormone replacement therapy D. Premenstrual tension

The 19-Norprogestins differ from progesterone derivatives in that they: A. Have potent antiovulatory activity B. Have no additional androgenic activity C. Have no additional estrogenic activity D. Are preferred for use in endometriosi

Description : The 19-Norprogestins differ from progesterone derivatives in that they: A. Have potent antiovulatory activity B. Have no additional androgenic activity C. Have no additional estrogenic activity D. Are preferred for use in endometriosi

Last Answer : A. Have potent antiovulatory activity

Urinary 17 ketosteroids (A) Are not found in women (B) Reflect the total production of androgenic substances (C) Indicate the total production of sex hormone (D) Are highly active androgens

Description : Urinary 17 ketosteroids (A) Are not found in women (B) Reflect the total production of androgenic substances (C) Indicate the total production of sex hormone (D) Are highly active androgens

Last Answer : Answer : B

Prolonged testosterone therapy can cause: A. Hypertrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes B. Hypertrophy of interstitial cells of testes C. Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Prolonged testosterone therapy can cause: A. Hypertrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes B. Hypertrophy of interstitial cells of testes C. Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes

Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by enlargement of thyroid gland C. Its long term use in Grave's disease leads to ‘thyroid escape’ D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Description : Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Last Answer : B. Reduce adult stature

What is the answer for apex Anabolic steroids are which of the following?

Description : What is the answer for apex Anabolic steroids are which of the following?

Last Answer : Synthetic forms of testorterone.

Is buying anabolic steroids by mail in Canada-moral turpitude?

Description : Is buying anabolic steroids by mail in Canada-moral turpitude?

Last Answer : Is buying anabolic steroids by mail from Canada to the United States a moral turpitude?

Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Description : Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Last Answer : C. Cholestatic jaundice

A major structural difference between estrogens and androgens is the fact that (A) The androgens are usually C21 steroids (B) The estrogens are usually digitonin - precipitable (C) The androgens have an aromatic ring (D) The estrogens have an aromatic ring

Description : A major structural difference between estrogens and androgens is the fact that (A) The androgens are usually C21 steroids (B) The estrogens are usually digitonin - precipitable (C) The androgens have an aromatic ring (D) The estrogens have an aromatic ring

Last Answer : Answer : D

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It is a synthetic atropine substitute used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms

Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming

Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma

The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease C. It affords measurable improvement in Alzheimer's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Description : The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in ... 's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Last Answer : B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease

Chlorpromazine and its congeners suppress vomiting of following etiologies except: A. Motion sickness B. Radiation sickness C. Postanaesthetic D. Uremic

Description : Chlorpromazine and its congeners suppress vomiting of following etiologies except: A. Motion sickness B. Radiation sickness C. Postanaesthetic D. Uremic

Last Answer : A. Motion sickness

The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself, but its metabolite alloxanthine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Description : Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Last Answer : A. Pregnancy induced hypertension

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Description : Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Last Answer : Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Description : Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Last Answer : B. Dobutamine

Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β 1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Description : Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β 1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Last Answer : B. Dobutamine

Cholesterol, testosterone, and estrogen are all examples of: a) proteins b) steroids c) nucleic acids d) alcohols

Description : Cholesterol, testosterone, and estrogen are all examples of: a) proteins b) steroids c) nucleic acids d) alcohols

Last Answer : ANSWER: B -- STEROIDS 

Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Last Answer : B. Zolpidem

Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Description : Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Last Answer : C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation

Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about colloidal bismuth subcitrate: A. It causes prolonged neutralization of gastric acid B. It has anti-H.pylori activity C. It relieves peptic ulcer pain promptly D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : B. It has anti-H.pylori activity

Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Description : Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Last Answer : C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses

Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Last Answer : A. Sertraline

Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Description : Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Last Answer : B. Oxybutynin

Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Description : Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Last Answer : B. Oxybutynin

Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Description : Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Last Answer : A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin

What is true of docetaxel: A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer B. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used for breast cancer C. It is effective only in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true of docetaxel: A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer B. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used for breast cancer C. It is effective only in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer