Prostaglandins play pathophysiological role in the following except: A. Patency of ductus arteriosus B. Regulation of renal tubular salt absorption C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction D. Initiation of labour

 Prostaglandins play pathophysiological role in the following except: A. Patency of ductus arteriosus B. Regulation of renal tubular salt absorption C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction D. Initiation of labour
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction 

by

Related questions

Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Description :  Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Last Answer : D. All of the above risks

Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis does not underlie the following action of aspirin: A. Analgesia B. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus C. Hyperventilation D. Bleeding tendency

Description : Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis does not underlie the following action of aspirin: A. Analgesia B. Closure of patent ductus arteriosus C. Hyperventilation D. Bleeding tendency

Last Answer : C. Hyperventilation

Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction involves the mediation of: A. Angiotensin II B. Prostaglandin C. Bradykinin D. Thromboxane A2

Description : Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction involves the mediation of: A. Angiotensin II B. Prostaglandin C. Bradykinin D. Thromboxane A2

Last Answer : A. Angiotensin II

Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Description : Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Last Answer : B. Ventricular extrasystoles

Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except: A. Prolongation of bleeding time B. Prolongation of prothrombin time C. Prolongation of labour D. Gastric mucosal damage

Description :  Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis share the following features except: A. Prolongation of bleeding time B. Prolongation of prothrombin time C. Prolongation of labour D. Gastric mucosal damage

Last Answer : B. Prolongation of prothrombin time

All the following are functions of prostaglandins except (A) Lowering of B.P (B) Introduction of labour (C) Anti inflammatory (D) Prevention of myocardial infraction

Description : All the following are functions of prostaglandins except (A) Lowering of B.P (B) Introduction of labour (C) Anti inflammatory (D) Prevention of myocardial infraction

Last Answer : Answer : D

Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because: A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur C. Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin

Description : Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because: A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias ... Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of erythromycin D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin

Last Answer : B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D

Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues little myocardial depression and hypotension (c) It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Description : Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

In mammalian embryo the pulmonary aorta communicates with carotico-systemic aorta by a narrow ductus arteriosus, in the adult this connection closes l

Description : In mammalian embryo the pulmonary aorta communicates with carotico-systemic aorta by a narrow ductus arteriosus, in the adult this connection closes l

Last Answer : In mammalian embryo the pulmonary aorta communicates with carotico-systemic aorta by a narrow ductus ... C. Ligamentum arteriosus D. None of these

Patent ductus arteriosus?

Description : Patent ductus arteriosus?

Last Answer : DefinitionPatent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a condition in which a blood vessel called the ductus arteriosus fails to close normally in an infant soon after birth. (The word "patent" means open.)The ... within a couple of days. If the ductus arteriosus does not close, there will be abnormal bloo

A newborn was diagnosed as having a congenital abnormality that resulted in transposition of her great arteries. While preparing the infant for surgery, the medical team needed to keep the ductus arteriosus open. They did this by infusing (a) Cortisol (b) Indomethacin (c) Ketorolac (d) Misoprostol (e) Tacrolimus

Description : A newborn was diagnosed as having a congenital abnormality that resulted in transposition of her great arteries. While preparing the infant for surgery, the medical team needed to keep the ductus arteriosus ... by infusing (a) Cortisol (b) Indomethacin (c) Ketorolac (d) Misoprostol (e) Tacrolimus

Last Answer : Ans: D

Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above

Description : Allopurinol is indicated in the following category of chronic gout patients: A. Over producers of uric acid B. Under excretors of uric acid C. Those with tophi and/or renal urate stones D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Description :  Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Last Answer : D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

The following drug is used for cervical priming to facilitate labour: A. Oxytocin B. Clomiphene C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandin E2

Description : The following drug is used for cervical priming to facilitate labour: A. Oxytocin B. Clomiphene C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandin E2

Last Answer : D. Prostaglandin E2

If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Last Answer : Ans: D

Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity C. Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Last Answer : B. Vasopressor

Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis

The NSAIDs aggravate the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Congestive heart failure C. Peptic ulcer D. Chronic gout

Description :  The NSAIDs aggravate the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Congestive heart failure C. Peptic ulcer D. Chronic gout

Last Answer : D. Chronic gout

Actions of prostaglandin E2 include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Bronchoconstriction C. Uterine contraction D. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

Description : Actions of prostaglandin E2 include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Bronchoconstriction C. Uterine contraction D. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion

Last Answer : B. Bronchoconstriction

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Last Answer : B. Vasopressor

Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Description : Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Last Answer : Ans: C

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Description : Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

Last Answer : . Lower risk of myocardial infarction

Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Description : Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium

Last Answer : A. Vasoconstriction

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

All the following statements about renal tubular acidosis are correct except (A) Renal tubules may be unable to reabsorb bicarbonate (B) Renal tubules may be unable to secrete hydrogen ions (C) Plasma chloride is elevated (D) Anion gap is decreased

Description : All the following statements about renal tubular acidosis are correct except (A) Renal tubules may be unable to reabsorb bicarbonate (B) Renal tubules may be unable to secrete hydrogen ions (C) Plasma chloride is elevated (D) Anion gap is decreased

Last Answer : Answer : D

Insulin is required for the active uptake of glucose by most of the cells except (A) Muscle cells (B) Renal tubular cells (C) Adipocytes (D) Liver cells

Description : Insulin is required for the active uptake of glucose by most of the cells except (A) Muscle cells (B) Renal tubular cells (C) Adipocytes (D) Liver cells

Last Answer : Answer : D

Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension or circulatolry collapse (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Last Answer : Ans: E

he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect C. It can inhibit insulin release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect

While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles

The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine

High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Description : High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic: A. Diphenhydramine B. Astemizole C. Cetirizine D. Terfenadine

Last Answer : A. Diphenhydramine

The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Description : The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is: A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation C. Bronchoconstriction D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

Last Answer : B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation

Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist: A. 4-methyl histamine B. Impromidine C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine D. Chlorpheniramine

Description : Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist: A. 4-methyl histamine B. Impromidine C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine D. Chlorpheniramine

Last Answer : C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine

Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Autacoids differ from hormones in that: A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is most appropriate: A. No regular medication. Treat attacks of acute gout when they occur with naproxen. B. Regular long-term treatment with naproxen C. Regular long-term treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Description : A 35-year-old male presented with an attack of acute gout. He was treated with a 10 day course of naproxen. His blood uric acid level is high. What future line of treatment is ... treatment with allopurinol D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Last Answer : D. Start with allopurinol + naproxen for 2 months followed by long-term allopurinol treatment

Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol

Description : Select the drug which is used in chronic gout but is not uricosuric: A. Probenecid B. Phenylbutazone C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Allopurinol

Last Answer : D. Allopurinol

Probenecid has the following action(s): A. Uricosuric B. Analgesic C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Probenecid has the following action(s): A. Uricosuric B. Analgesic C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Uricosuric

The most important dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine is: A. Sedation B. Kidney damage C. Diarrhoea D. Muscle paralysis

Description : The most important dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine is: A. Sedation B. Kidney damage C. Diarrhoea D. Muscle paralysis

Last Answer : C. Diarrhoea

Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor antiinflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout: A. Prednisolone B. Colchicine C. Naproxen D. Sulfinpyrazone

Description : Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor antiinflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout: A. Prednisolone B. Colchicine C. Naproxen D. Sulfinpyrazone

Last Answer : B. Colchicine