Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy C. In patients not responding to carbimazole D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine

Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism:
A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect
of carbimazole develops
B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy
C. In patients not responding to carbimazole
D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect
of carbimazole develops
by

Related questions

The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Description : The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Last Answer : D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

n the treatment of hyperthyroidism, carbimazole has the following advantage over radioactive iodine: A. Cost of treatment is lower B. It is preferable in uncooperative patient C. It is better tolerated by the patients D. Hypothyroidism when induced is reversible

Description : n the treatment of hyperthyroidism, carbimazole has the following advantage over radioactive iodine: A. Cost of treatment is lower B. It is preferable in uncooperative patient C. It is better tolerated by the patients D. Hypothyroidism when induced is reversible

Last Answer : Hypothyroidism when induced is reversible

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

Lugol’s iodine is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As long term definitive monotherapy B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days C. Postoperatively for 10-15 days D. As adjuvant to carbimazole for long term therap

Description : Lugol’s iodine is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As long term definitive monotherapy B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days C. Postoperatively for 10-15 days D. As adjuvant to carbimazole for long term therap

Last Answer : B. Preoperatively for 10-15 days

Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Carbimazole D. All of the above

Description : Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Carbimazole D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Carbimazole

The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Methimazole C. Carbimazole D. Radioactive iodine

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Methimazole C. Carbimazole D. Radioactive iodine

Last Answer : A. Propyl thiouracil

The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanat

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanat

Last Answer : C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanate

Description : The following thyroid inhibitor does not produce goiter when given in over dose: A. Propyl thiouracil B. Carbimazole C. Radioactive iodine D. Sodium thiocyanate

Last Answer : C. Radioactive iodine

The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Description : The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Last Answer : A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients

Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

In hyperthyroidism, β adrenergic blockers are used: A. To induce euthyroid state B. As definitive therapy C. For rapid control of certain symptoms while awaiting response to carbimazole D. To reduce basal metabolic rate

Description : Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional α1 blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties: A. Carvedilol B. Celiprolol C. Acebutolol D. Metoprolol

Last Answer : C. Acebutolol

In hyperthyroidism, β adrenergic blockers are used: A. To induce euthyroid state B. As definitive therapy C. For rapid control of certain symptoms while awaiting response to carbimazole D. To reduce basal metabolic rate

Description : In hyperthyroidism, β adrenergic blockers are used: A. To induce euthyroid state B. As definitive therapy C. For rapid control of certain symptoms while awaiting response to carbimazole D. To reduce basal metabolic rate

Last Answer : C. For rapid control of certain symptoms while awaiting response to carbimazole

Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by enlargement of thyroid gland C. Its long term use in Grave's disease leads to ‘thyroid escape’ D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap

What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief as well as prevents recurrences C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Symptomatic relief

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Description : Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Radioactive iodine uptake by thyroid gland is increased in (A) Endemic goitre (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Myxoedema (D) Creatinism

Description : Radioactive iodine uptake by thyroid gland is increased in (A) Endemic goitre (B) Hyperthyroidism (C) Myxoedema (D) Creatinism

Last Answer : Answer : B

What radioactive element is routinely used in treating hyperthyroidism, and in reducing thyroid activity? w) Iron-59 x) Gold-198 y) Cobalt-60 z) Iodine-131

Description : What radioactive element is routinely used in treating hyperthyroidism, and in reducing thyroid activity? w) Iron-59 x) Gold-198 y) Cobalt-60 z) Iodine-131

Last Answer : ANSWER: Z -- IODINE-131

According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia

Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Description : Testosterone therapy started in a boy of 8 years and continued till puberty is likely to: A. Increase adult stature B. Reduce adult stature C. Have no effect on adult stature D. Cause hypertrophy of penis

Last Answer : B. Reduce adult stature

A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and do not give any anticonvulsant drug B. Continuous phenobarbitone prophylaxis till the age of 10 years C. Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Description : Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Last Answer : C. Short-term stressful situations

Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Description : Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression

Last Answer : C. Short-term stressful situation

Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Description : Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Last Answer : C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Last Answer : . Started immediately

Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in the subjacent muscle and joint tissues upto a depth/distance of 10 cm from the site of application C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

Losartan differs from enalapril in the following respect: A. It does not potentiate bradykinin B. It depresses cardiovascular reflexes C. It impairs carbohydrate tolerance D. It does not have fetopathic potential

Description : Losartan differs from enalapril in the following respect: A. It does not potentiate bradykinin B. It depresses cardiovascular reflexes C. It impairs carbohydrate tolerance D. It does not have fetopathic potential

Last Answer : A. It does not potentiate bradykini

The thyroid inhibitor which produces the fastest response is: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Propylthiouracil D. Lithium carbonate

Description : The thyroid inhibitor which produces the fastest response is: A. Lugol’s iodine B. Radioactive iodine C. Propylthiouracil D. Lithium carbonate

Last Answer : A. Lugol’s iodine

The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. Two years or more till disease inactivity is attained D. One year for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Description : Currently, under the mass programme (WHO/NLEP), the duration of multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy is: A. Two years fixed duration for all cases B. One year fixed duration for all cases C. ... for cases with bacillary index 3 or less and two years for cases with bacillary index 4 or more

Last Answer : B. One year fixed duration for all cases

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Carbimazole acts by inhibiting: A. Iodide trapping B. Oxidation of iodide C. Proteolysis of thyroglobulin D. Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein

Description : Carbimazole acts by inhibiting: A. Iodide trapping B. Oxidation of iodide C. Proteolysis of thyroglobulin D. Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein

Last Answer : B. Oxidation of iodide

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action