Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril
Last Answer : A. Clonidine
Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia
Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency
Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts
Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment
Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone
Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K
Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost
Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action
Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels
Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels
Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding
Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding
Description : Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin
Last Answer : B. Hydralazine
Description : Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate
Last Answer : B. Calcium
Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives
Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives
Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients
Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response
Description : A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as ... injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin
Last Answer : C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprussid
Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine
Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami
Last Answer : C. Captopril
Description : Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve
Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action
Description : The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of ... for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine
Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol
Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them
Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them
Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil
Last Answer : D. Sildenafil
Description : Which of the following drugs exhibits ‘therapeutic window’ phenomenon: A. Captopril B. Furosemide C. Diazepam D. Imipramine
Last Answer : D. Imipramine
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener: A. Nicorandil B. Hydralazine C. Glibenclamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : D. Amiloride
Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug
Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension
Description : A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Metoprolol (c) NIfedipine (d) Nitroglycerin (e) Verapamil
Description : Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics
Last Answer : D. Diuretics
Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath
Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality
Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases
Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases
Description : Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives
Last Answer : B. Analgesics
Description : Which of the following is a prodrug: A. Hydralazine B. Clonidine C. Captopril D. Enalapril
Last Answer : D. Enalapril
Description : Which of the following is a prodrug: A. Hydralazine B. Clonidine C. Captopril D. Enalaprill
Description : Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.
Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.
Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics
Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine
Description : Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Which of the following is approved for the treatment of hemorrhagic stroke ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide moninitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : The following drug increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial action: A. Captopril B. Digoxin C. Amrinone D. Dobutamine
Last Answer : A. Captopril
Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action
Last Answer : D. Lisinopri
Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action
Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension
Description : Captopril pretreatment: A. Inhibits the pressor action of angiotensin I B. Inhibits the pressor action of angiotensin II C. Potentiates the depressor action of bradykinin D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure
Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms
Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori
Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
Description : Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the ... C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure
Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure
Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis
Description : Losartan differs from enalapril in the following respect: A. It does not potentiate bradykinin B. It depresses cardiovascular reflexes C. It impairs carbohydrate tolerance D. It does not have fetopathic potential
Last Answer : A. It does not potentiate bradykini