Description : Propranolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with: A. Chronic neurotic disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Short-term stressful situations D. Endogenous depression
Last Answer : C. Short-term stressful situations
Description : Propanolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with (a) Chronic neurotic disorer (b) Schizopherenia (c) Short-term stressful situation (d) Endogenous depression
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety ... the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both B' and C' are correct
Last Answer : C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations
Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)
Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)
Description : Selective inhibition of conditioned avoidance response in animals by a drug indicates that the drug is likely to be effective in: A. Anxiety B. Major depression C. Schizophrenia D. Manic-depressive illness
Last Answer : C. Schizophrenia
Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit
Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence
Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine
Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long
Last Answer : B. 6-12 months
Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months
Last Answer : C. Three weeks
Description : The tricyclic antidepressants are also effective in the following psychiatric disorders except: A. Schizophrenia B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Bulimia D. Phobic states
Last Answer : A. Schizophreni
Description : The effect of propranolol on heart rate is least marked under the following condition: A. Physical exercise B. Rest C. Anxiety D. Sick sinus syndrome
Last Answer : B. Rest
Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.
Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.
Description : Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy C. In patients not responding to carbimazole D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine
Last Answer : A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops
Description : Do you think it comes across as neurotic to have to explain one’s anxiety to other people?
Last Answer : Were you just there a few minutes? Not sure from your question. If so, I would explain it. If you were there for a while, I wouldn’t explain it
Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening
Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl
Last Answer : Yes. Since it is close to the head, it is more likely to have a brain effect.
Description : The following statement is true about endogenous opioid peptides: A. They activate only μ opioid recepors B. They do not occur in peripheral tissues C. They mediate stress induced analgesia D. Naloxone fails to antagonise their actio
Last Answer : C. They mediate stress induced analgesia
Description : What is the time period covered by the question about whether the Service member has had a past diagnosis for any mental health problem such as PTSD depression anxiety disorder or alcohol abuse or sub?
Last Answer : One year
Description : What propaganda technique is used in this example Hubert was always too incompetent to handle stressful situations.?
Last Answer : Brand X sells inferior and out-dated products.
Description : The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis
Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy
Description : What immunodeficiency disorder is associated with a tack of T and B cells and complete immune dysfunction? a. DiGeorge syndrome b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease c. Chronic granulomatous disease d. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
Last Answer : b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Description : Which of the following statements best describes the usual course of rheumatoid arthritis? (a) It is an acute exacerbation of joint pain treated with short-term anti-inflammatory therapy (b) It is ... characterized by a marked loss of calcium from the bones and a resultant thinning of the bones
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : What are the symptoms associated with anxiety disorder?
Last Answer : Symptoms of anxiety disorders include feelings of panic, fear, obsession, losing control, or possibly nightmares. More physical symptoms could be repeated behaviors, sleeping problems, or excessive sweating.
Description : Choose the phenothiazine compound which has selective labyrinthine suppressant action, is used for vomiting and vertigo, but not in schizophrenia: A. Triflupromazine B. Prochlorperazine C. Trifluoperazine D. Thioridazine
Last Answer : B. Prochlorperazine
Description : The following antipsychotic drug has weak dopamine D2 but additional 5-HT2 blocking activity and benefits both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia: A. Loxapine B. Clozapine C. Pimozide D. Penfluridol
Last Answer : B. Clozapin
Description : The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects
Last Answer : A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis
Description : Regular low-to-moderate alcohol consumption is associated with: A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease B. Myocardial depression C. Physical dependence D. Wernicke's encephalopathy
Last Answer : A. Lower incidence of coronary artery disease
Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril
Last Answer : B. Methyldopa
Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : A. Prazosin
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: A. Nifedipine B. Felodipine C. Verapamil D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Last Answer : C. Verapami
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole
Last Answer : A. Propranolol
Description : Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil
Last Answer : D. Sildenafil
Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Adenosine
Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine
Last Answer : B. Verapami
Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : The following side effect of typical neuroleptics may respond to propranolol: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Akathisia (p. 397) 30.15 3 0 . 1 5 B 30.16 3 0 . 1 6 D
Last Answer : D. Akathisia (p. 397)
Description : Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol
Last Answer : C. Cimetidin
Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin
Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months
Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month
Description : Labetalol differs from propranolol in that: A. It has additional α1 blocking property B. It is a selective β1 blocker C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. It has additional α1 blocking property
Description : Select the drug that suppresses essential tremor, but not parkinsonian tremor: A. Procyclidine B. Propranolol C. Promethazine D. Prochlorperazine
Last Answer : B. Propranolol
Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol
Last Answer : A. Pindolol
Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings
Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation