The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine

The following is true of procainamide except:
A. It generates an active metabolite in the body
B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of
quinidine
C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic
lupus erythematosus like illness
D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular
extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Disopyramide
by

Related questions

A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

Last Answer : A. Lignocaine

The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

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Last Answer : D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Description : The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Serum sickness

The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Description : The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of ... for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol

Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: A. Gynaecomastia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Lupus erythematosus

Description : Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: A. Gynaecomastia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Lupus erythematosus

Last Answer : D. Lupus erythematosus

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : Ans: C

Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction

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Last Answer : B. Discoid lupus erythematosus

Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism

Description : Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism

Last Answer : Ans: A

Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Description : Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction is contraindicated in the presence of the following except: A. Peptic ulcer B. Ventricular extrasystoles C. History of recent trauma D. Severe hypertension

Last Answer : B. Ventricular extrasystoles

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: D

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune disease. A. squamous laceration ecchymosis B. systemic lupus erythematosus C. septic lymphodic edema

Description : SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune disease. A. squamous laceration ecchymosis B. systemic lupus erythematosus C. septic lymphodic edema

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Type i diabetes c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. All of the above are autoimmune disorders

Description : Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Type i diabetes c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. All of the above are autoimmune disorders

Last Answer : e. All of the above are autoimmune disorders

Which one of the following applies to the disease systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. It is a type of cytotoxic hypersensitivity. b. It is often accompanied by a butterfly rash. c. It is due to an overreaction of T lymphocytes. d. It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.

Description : Which one of the following applies to the disease systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. It is a type of cytotoxic hypersensitivity. b. It is often accompanied by a butterfly rash. c. It is due to an overreaction of T lymphocytes. d. It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.

Last Answer : d. It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

Description : Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ... , or delayed-type, hypersensitivity occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an allergen.

Last Answer : a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows acantholysis and supra basilare, your diagnosis is: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bulla lichen planus C. Erythema multiform D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

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Last Answer : A. Pemphigus vulgaris

The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Description : The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Serum sickness

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

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Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

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Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Description : The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of ... for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamo

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Description : The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

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Last Answer : A. Propranolol

In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of action C. It activates dopamine D2 receptors, with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Description : In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of ... with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Last Answer : D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effects

Quinidine has the following action on electrophysiological properties of the heart except: A. Decreases automaticity of Purkinje fibres B. Abolishes after depolarizations C. Prolongs refractory period of atrial fibres D. Decreases membrane responsiveness of atrial and ventricular fibres

Description : Quinidine has the following action on electrophysiological properties of the heart except: A. Decreases automaticity of Purkinje fibres B. Abolishes after depolarizations C. Prolongs refractory period of atrial fibres D. Decreases membrane responsiveness of atrial and ventricular fibres

Last Answer : B. Abolishes after depolarizations

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min ... accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Description : Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Last Answer : D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Description : The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is ... the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Last Answer : A. Generation of an active metabolit

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans: D 68. In heart, potassium channels determine (a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity

The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling

Description : The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling

Last Answer : B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine

Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide

Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide

Last Answer : Ans: E

What is true of isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH): A. An active transport mechanism concentrates INH inside sensitive mycobacteria B. Sensitive mycobacteria generate an active metabolite of INH through a catalaseperoxidase enzyme C. The most common mechanism of INH resistance is mutation i

Description : What is true of isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH): A. An active transport mechanism concentrates INH inside sensitive mycobacteria B. Sensitive mycobacteria generate an active metabolite of INH through a catalaseperoxidase enzyme C. The most common mechanism of INH resistance is mutation i

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct