Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except: A. Acne B. Menorrhagia C. Amenorrhoea D. Hot flashes

Danazol produces the following side effects in
premenopausal women except:
A. Acne
B. Menorrhagia
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Hot flashes
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Menorrhagia
by

Related questions

Danazol is used for the following disorders except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Endometriosis C. Fibrocystic breast disease D. Precocious puberty in male children

Description : Danazol is used for the following disorders except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Endometriosis C. Fibrocystic breast disease D. Precocious puberty in male children

Last Answer : A. Amenorrhoea

The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Description : The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferation

Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Description : Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Last Answer : D. Polycystic ovaries

16.16 Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Description : 16.16 Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Last Answer : D. Polycystic ovaries

16.10 Hyperprolactinemia can cause the following except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Multiple ovulation D. Depressed fertility

Description : 16.10 Hyperprolactinemia can cause the following except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Gynaecomastia C. Multiple ovulation D. Depressed fertility

Last Answer : . Multiple ovulation

Tamoxifen citrate is used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast in: A. Premenopausal women B. Postmenopausal women C. Mastectomized patients D. All of the above

Description : Tamoxifen citrate is used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast in: A. Premenopausal women B. Postmenopausal women C. Mastectomized patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries

Description : In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries

Last Answer : C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion

Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Description : Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Last Answer : C. Cholestatic jaundice

Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Description : Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Last Answer : B. Mifepristone

The following is/are beneficial in endometriosis: A. Norethindrone B. Nafarelin C. Danazol D. All of the above

Description : The following is/are beneficial in endometriosis: A. Norethindrone B. Nafarelin C. Danazol D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate

Description : The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate

Last Answer : D. Clomiphene citrate

Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated during treatment with: A. Danazol B. Finasteride C. Flutamide D. Ketoconazole

Description : Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated during treatment with: A. Danazol B. Finasteride C. Flutamide D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : C. Flutamide

Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Description : Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Last Answer : D. Flutamide

Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized

Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It needs pretreatment fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects

Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above

Description : Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers C. It produces fewer side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers

Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Description : Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Last Answer : A. It cannot be injected i.v

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Description : The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Last Answer : B. It produces sedation as a side effect

Menopause question: the women you know who have had hot flashes over two years, did any of them never take hormone replacements?

Description : Menopause question: the women you know who have had hot flashes over two years, did any of them never take hormone replacements?

Last Answer : I took pregnenalone prescribed by a naturopath. It’s a natural hormone precursor found in the body. It stopped my hot flashes and they never came back even when I stopped taking it some years later.

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Description : Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Last Answer : D. Irregular bleeding

The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Description : The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Last Answer : D. Good antipruritic action

Estrogen therapy can worsen the following associated conditions except: A. Migraine B. Cholelithiasis C. Acne vulgaris D. Endometriosis

Description : Estrogen therapy can worsen the following associated conditions except: A. Migraine B. Cholelithiasis C. Acne vulgaris D. Endometriosis

Last Answer : C. Acne vulgaris

Pseudocyesis includes the following features except Options: 1) Distension of abdomen 2) hCG levels double every 72 hours 3) Amenorrhoea 4) Morning Sickness

Description : Pseudocyesis includes the following features except Options: 1) Distension of abdomen 2) hCG levels double every 72 hours 3) Amenorrhoea 4) Morning Sickness

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) hCG levels double every 72 hours

The following is true of buprenorphine: A. It is an agonist-antagonist type of opioid analgesic B. Its subjective effects are different from those of morphine C. Naloxone is largely ineffective in reversing its effects D. It produces mydriasis

Description : The following is true of buprenorphine: A. It is an agonist-antagonist type of opioid analgesic B. Its subjective effects are different from those of morphine C. Naloxone is largely ineffective in reversing its effects D. It produces mydriasis

Last Answer : C. Naloxone is largely ineffective in reversing its effects

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Oxethazaine is used for anaesthetizing gastric mucosa because: A. It is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium C. It is highly ionized in acidic medium D. It produces no systemic effects even at high doses

Description : Oxethazaine is used for anaesthetizing gastric mucosa because: A. It is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium C. It is highly ionized in acidic medium D. It produces no systemic effects even at high doses

Last Answer : B. It remains largely unionized in acidic medium

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Description : The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Last Answer : A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morph

Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Description : Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Last Answer : A. Euphoria

Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events

The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Do you ladies of a certain age get both hot and cold flashes?

Description : Do you ladies of a certain age get both hot and cold flashes?

Last Answer : Yes, I do. Sometimes I feel like I can’t get warm, then I’m roasting hot. I do what you do, throw the covers off and pull them back over me for most of the night. And I too seem to run a degree or so hotter most of the time. I’ll be interested to see if anyone has any other solutions.