The following is an orally active ovulation inducing
agent:
A. Menotropin
B. Mifepristone
C. Danazol
D. Clomiphene citrate

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Clomiphene citrate

Related questions

Description : Which of the following can act as a single dose postcoital contraceptive: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

Last Answer : B. Mifepristone

Description : In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries

Last Answer : C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion

Description : The drug of choice for tropical eosinophilia is: A. Carbamazepine B. Diethyl carbamazine citrate C. Carbetapentane D. Clomiphene citrate

Last Answer : B. Diethyl carbamazine citrate

Description : Which of the following is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that improves bone mineral density in postmenopausal women: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Raloxifene C. Ormeloxifene D. Alendronate

Last Answer : B. Raloxifene

Description : For the treatment of female infertility, clomiphene citrate is used in the following manner: A. Daily from 5th to 10th day of menstrual cycle B. On alternate days over the last two weeks of menstrual cycle C. Cyclically for 3 weeks with one week gap D. Continuously till conception occurs

Last Answer : A. Daily from 5th to 10th day of menstrual cycle

Description : Clomiphene citrate is indicated for the following condition/conditions: A. Female infertility due to anovular cycles B. Male infertility due to oligozoospermia C. Endometriosis D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : The following drug has potent antiandrogenic and weak progestational activity: A. Ethylestrenol B. Clomiphene citrate C. Cyproterone acetate D. Magestrol acetate

Last Answer : D. Magestrol acetate

Description : Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Last Answer : A. Mifepristone

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

Description : Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris

Description : Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Last Answer : A. Cefdinir

Description : Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

Description : The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Last Answer : A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphin

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Description : The following is/are beneficial in endometriosis: A. Norethindrone B. Nafarelin C. Danazol D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

Description : Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated during treatment with: A. Danazol B. Finasteride C. Flutamide D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : C. Flutamide

Description : Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist: A. Cyproterone acetate B. Danazol C. Finasteride D. Flutamid

Last Answer : D. Flutamide

Description : Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except: A. Acne B. Menorrhagia C. Amenorrhoea D. Hot flashes

Last Answer : B. Menorrhagia

Description : Danazol is used for the following disorders except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Endometriosis C. Fibrocystic breast disease D. Precocious puberty in male children

Last Answer : A. Amenorrhoea

Description : A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of ... atrophy. c) Increasing cervical mucous hostility. d) Inducing endometritis. e) Inhibiting prolactin.

Last Answer : a) Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.

Description : The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov

Last Answer : D. All of the abov

Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto

Description : Administration of mifepristone in the late luteal phase: A. Induces menstruation B. Postpones menstruation C. Prevents luteolysis D. Causes decidualization of endometrium

Last Answer : A. Induces menstruation

Description : The most important indication of mifepristone is: A. Endometriosis B. Cushing's syndrome C. First term abortion D. Second term abortion

Last Answer : C. First term abortion

Description : Which of the following drugs is an antiprogestin: A. Gemeprost B. Megestrol C. Mifepristone D. Tamoxifen

Last Answer : C. Mifepristone

Description : Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Last Answer : Mifepristone possesses the following activities: A. Potent antiprogestin + weak androgenic B. Potent antiprogestin + weak antiglucocorticoid C. Potent antiestrogenic + weak antiprogestin D. Potent antiestrogenic + weak glucocorticoid

Description : Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic action by inducing: A. Breakage of DNA strand B. Cross linking of DNA strands C. Abnormal pairing of purine and pyrimidine bases D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by: A. Binding to 30S ribosome and inhibiting attachment of aminoacyl tRNA B. Binding to 50S ribosome and preventing peptide bond formation C. Binding to ... chain D. Binding to both 30S and 50S ribosome and inducing misreading of mRNA code

Last Answer : B. Binding to 50S ribosome and preventing peptide bond formation

Description : Menadione (vitamin K3) can produce kernicterus in neonates by: A. Inducing haemolysis B. Inhibiting glucuronidation of bilirubin C. Displacing plasma protein bound bilirubin D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by: A. Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle C. Promoting coagulation D. Inducing platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Increasing tone of uterine muscle

Description : Aldosterone enhances Na+ reabsorption in renal tubules by: A. Stimulating carbonic anhydrase B. Activating Na+ K+ ATPase C. Inducing the synthesis of Na+ K+ ATPase D. Inducing renal prostaglandin synthesis

Last Answer : C. Inducing the synthesis of Na+ K+ ATPase

Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

Description : Aspirin reduces fever by: A. Decreasing heat production in the body B. Enhancing cutaneous blood flow C. Inducing sweating D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct  

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct 

Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Description : Diethyl carbamazine citrate has the following action in filariasis: A. Rapidly kills adult filarial worms and stops production of microfilariae B. Kills circulating microfilariae C. Kills microfilariae present in nodules and serous fluids D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilariae

Last Answer : D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilaria

Description : Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferation