As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the
following advantages except:
A. High ceiling antihypertensive action
B. Absence of CNS side effects
C. Absence of tolerance development
D. Low cost
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. High ceiling antihypertensive action
by

Related questions

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar pattern of haemodynamic action are superior to those with dissimilar pattern C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Description : Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Last Answer : B. Analgesics

Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Description : Amphetamine potentiates the following class of drugs: A. Diuretics B. Analgesics C. Neuroleptics D. Antihypertensives

Last Answer : B. Analgesics

The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Description : ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis

Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

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Last Answer : D. Diuretics

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

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Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

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Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

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Last Answer : B. Calcium

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

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Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

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Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

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Last Answer : D. Good antipruritic action

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

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Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

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Last Answer : C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

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Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs C. They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Description : Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal ... . They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Last Answer : B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

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Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action

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Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses

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Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation

When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Description : When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Last Answer : C. Therapeutic window phenomenon

Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules

Description : Thiazide diuretics inhibit (A) Carbonic anhydrase (B) Aldosterone secretion (C) ADH secretion (D) Sodium reabsorption in distal tubules

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Description : Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine 

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

___________ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus a) ACE inhibitors b) High dose diuretics c) Centrally acting d) calcium channel blockers

Description : ___________ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus a) ACE inhibitors b) High dose diuretics c) Centrally acting d) calcium channel blockers

Last Answer : c) Centrally acting  

The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence

Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: A. Symptomatic relief B. Regression of pathological changes C. Prolongation of life expectancy D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Symptomatic relief

Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Last Answer : B. Amiloride

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia

Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Description : Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the ... C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure

The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action