The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

The following is true of sevoflurane except:
A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly
B. It is nonpungent
C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment
D. It is less potent than halothane
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment
by

Related questions

Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane

Description : Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane

Last Answer : D. Halothane

Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine

Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine

Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive

s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane

Description : Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane

Last Answer : D. Desflurane

Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Last Answer : D. Lisinopri

Chlorpromazine and its congeners suppress vomiting of following etiologies except: A. Motion sickness B. Radiation sickness C. Postanaesthetic D. Uremic

Description : Chlorpromazine and its congeners suppress vomiting of following etiologies except: A. Motion sickness B. Radiation sickness C. Postanaesthetic D. Uremic

Last Answer : A. Motion sickness

Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action

Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral bioavailability C. It is the longest acting and the safest glycoside D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

The following is true of simvastatin except: A. It is more potent than lovastatin B. At the highest recommended dose, it causes greater LDL-cholesterol lowering than lovastatin C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism in liver D. It can raise HDL-cholesterol level when the same is low at base line

Description : The following is true of simvastatin except: A. It is more potent than lovastatin B. At the highest recommended dose, it causes greater LDL-cholesterol lowering than lovastatin C. It does not undergo ... metabolism in liver D. It can raise HDL-cholesterol level when the same is low at base line

Last Answer : C. It does not undergo first pass metabolism in liver

he following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Description : Che following is true of desmopressin except: A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist B. It is more potent and longer acting than arginine vasopressin (AVP) C. It is preferred over AVP for treatment of diabetes insipidus D. It can be administered orally

Last Answer : A. It is nonselective V1 and V2 receptor agonist

The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale

The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa

The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient

Surface anaesthesia is used for the following except: A. Ocular tonometry B. Urethral dilatation C. Tooth extraction D. Anal fissure

Description : Surface anaesthesia is used for the following except: A. Ocular tonometry B. Urethral dilatation C. Tooth extraction D. Anal fissure

Last Answer : C. Tooth extraction

Indications of centrally acting muscle relaxants include all of the following except: A. Balanced anaesthesia B. Traumatic muscle spasms C. Torticollis D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Description : Indications of centrally acting muscle relaxants include all of the following except: A. Balanced anaesthesia B. Traumatic muscle spasms C. Torticollis D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Last Answer : A. Balanced anaesthesia

ndications of piracetam include the following except: A. Apnoea in preterm infant B. Learning defects in children C. Confusional states in the elderly D. Memory impairment following electroconvulsive therapy

Description : ndications of piracetam include the following except: A. Apnoea in preterm infant B. Learning defects in children C. Confusional states in the elderly D. Memory impairment following electroconvulsive therapy

Last Answer : A. Apnoea in preterm infant

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trappin

Description : Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trappin

Last Answer : B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin

16.18 Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trapping

Description : 16.18 Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trapping

Last Answer : B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Description : The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Last Answer : A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morph

The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Description : The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Last Answer : C. It is safe in epileptics

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Last Answer : C. Ketamine

Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether

Description : Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether

Last Answer : D. Ether

Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Last Answer : B. Halothane

The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide

Description : The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide

Last Answer : A. Halothane

The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Description : The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Last Answer : B. Nitrous oxide

The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Description : The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Last Answer : A. Ether

Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium

Description : Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium

Last Answer : A. Nitrous oxide

Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Last Answer : D. Ketamine

A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is: A. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Recurring oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Description : A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental ... oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

Last Answer : B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage

The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property

Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Description : Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Last Answer : B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus

The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive to the latter C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Description : The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive ... β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases

Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Description : Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Last Answer : B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

riiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that: A. It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It is less potent D. It has a longer latency of action

Description : riiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that: A. It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It is less potent D. It has a longer latency of action

Last Answer : B. It has a shorter plasma half life

17.2 Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that: A. It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It is less potent D. It has a longer latency of action (

Description : 17.2 Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that: A. It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It is less potent D. It has a longer latency of action (

Last Answer : B. It has a shorter plasma half life

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines