Description : 16.16 Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries
Last Answer : D. Polycystic ovaries
Description : Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty
Last Answer : C. Cholestatic jaundice
Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except: A. Acne B. Menorrhagia C. Amenorrhoea D. Hot flashes
Last Answer : B. Menorrhagia
Description : Danazol is used for the following disorders except: A. Amenorrhoea B. Endometriosis C. Fibrocystic breast disease D. Precocious puberty in male children
Last Answer : A. Amenorrhoea
Description : Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries
Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities
Last Answer : C. Kidney damage
Description : 16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : C. Bromocriptine
Description : Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-term use: A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Metolazone D. Acetazolamide
Last Answer : B. Spironolactone
Description : Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: A. Gynaecomastia B. Thrombocytopenia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Lupus erythematosus
Last Answer : D. Lupus erythematosus
Description : In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries
Last Answer : C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion
Description : Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of: A. Bromocriptine B. Cimetidine C. Famotidine D. Levodopa
Last Answer : B. Cimetidine
Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia
Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : A 65-year-old man was brought to the hospital with complaints of pain in lower abdomen and not having passed urine for 16 hours. The bladder was found to be full. His son informed that he ... drugs is he most likely to have received: A. Alprazolam B. Sertraline C. Amitryptyline D. Trazodone
Last Answer : C. Amitryptyline
Description : Pseudocyesis includes the following features except Options: 1) Distension of abdomen 2) hCG levels double every 72 hours 3) Amenorrhoea 4) Morning Sickness
Last Answer : Correct Answer: 2) hCG levels double every 72 hours
Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus
Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation
Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate
Last Answer : D. Clomiphene citrate
Description : On stoppage of the combined estrogen-progestin contraceptive pill, fertility returns after: A. 1–2 months B. 4–6 months C. 6–12 months D. Uncertain period
Last Answer : A. 1–2 months
Description : Which of the following is most useful in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia ? (a) Bromocriptine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ergotamine (d) Ketanserin (e) LSD
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : 16.18 Thyrotropin exerts the following actions on the thyroid gland except: A. Increases vascularity B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin C. Induces hyperplasia and hypertrophy D. Promotes iodide trapping
Last Answer : B. Inhibits proteolysis of thyroglobulin
Description : 16.8 Drugs that suppress growth hormone release in acromegaly include the following except: A. Bromocriptine B. Somatostatin C. Octreotide D. Nafarelin
Last Answer : D. Nafarelin
Description : 16.3 Actions of growth hormone include the following except: A. Increased protein synthesis B. Increased fat utilization C. Increased carbohydrate utilization D. Glucose intolerance
Last Answer : C. Increased carbohydrate utilization
Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system
Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system
Description : The distinctive action of chlorpromazine like drugs not possessed by any other class of drugs is: A. Relief of anxiety without producing sedation B. Suppression of agressive behaviour C. Mood elevation in depressed patients D. Correction of distortions of thoug
Last Answer : D. Correction of distortions of thought and perception occurring in psy
Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity
Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis
Last Answer : D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis
Description : Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions
Last Answer : D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions
Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit
Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa
Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori
Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect
Description : The following is true of procainamide except: A. It generates an active metabolite in the body B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine C. On long-term use, it ... erythematosus like illness D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
Last Answer : A. Disopyramide
Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension
Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity
Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential
Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm
Description : The following is true about entacapone except: A. It acts by inhibiting degradation of dopamine in the brain B. If prolongs the therapeutic effect of levodopacarbidopa in parkinsonism C. It can accentuate levodopa induced dyskinesias D. It can cause diarrhoea as a side effec
Last Answer : A. It acts by inhibiting degradation of dopamine in the brain
Description : Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema
Last Answer : C. Hypoglycaemia
Description : Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention
Last Answer : C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol
Description : The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance
Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions
Description : he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance
Description : Adrenergic β1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity
Last Answer : C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris
Description : Adrenergic β 1 selective blockers offer the following advantages except: A. Lower propensity to cause bronchospasm B. Less prone to produce cold hands and feet as side effect C. Withdrawal is less likely to exacerbate angina pectoris D. Less liable to impair exercise capacity
Description : A farming system in which airable crops are grown in alleys formed by trees or shrubs, to establish soil fertility and to enhance soil productivity, is known as— (A) Relay cropping (B) Multiple cropping (C) Alley cropping (D) Mixed cropping
Last Answer : (C) Alley cropping
Description : 16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release
Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks
Description : What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia and is sterile? (a) Down’s syndrome (b) Turner’s syndrome (c) Klinefelter’s syndrome (d) Edward syndrome
Last Answer : Klinefelter’s syndrome
Description : Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graffian follicle? (a) High concentration of Estrogen (b) High concentration of Progesterone (c) Low concentration of LH (d) Low concentration of FSH
Last Answer : a) High concentration of Estrogen
Description : The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in human female is the large plasma surge of (a) LH (b) FSH (c) progesterone (d) estradiol.
Last Answer : (a) LH
Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days
Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days
Description : In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended ... Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct
Last Answer : D. Both A and C are correct
Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage
Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity
Description : The following is true about use of prednisolone in malignant diseases except: A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia B. It is used in Hodgkin’s disease C. It controls hypercalcaemia in patients with bony metastasis D. It affords symptomatic relief in most cancer patients
Last Answer : A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia