Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it: A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion C. Does not affect vaginal cytology D. All of the above are correct

Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen
therapy in that it:
A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis
of clotting factors
B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion
C. Does not affect vaginal cytology
D. All of the above are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis
of clotting factors
by

Related questions

The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

Description : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

Last Answer : D. Conjugated estrogen

The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and LH release C. Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum

Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release

Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with: A. Leg vein thrombosis B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding C. Migraine D. All of the above

Description : Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women is contraindicated in subjects with: A. Leg vein thrombosis B. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding C. Migraine D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following statements are true of oral anticoagulants except: A. They interfere with an early step in the synthesis of clotting factors B. Irrespective of the dose administered, their anticoagulant effect has a latency of onset of 1-3 days C. Their dose is adjusted by repeated measurement of prothrombin time D. They are contraindicated during pregnancy

Description : The following statements are true of oral anticoagulants except: A. They interfere with an early step in the synthesis of clotting factors B. Irrespective of the dose administered, their ... dose is adjusted by repeated measurement of prothrombin time D. They are contraindicated during pregnancy

Last Answer : A. They interfere with an early step in the synthesis of clotting factors

Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of androgenic activity: A. Micronized oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Description : Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of ... oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Last Answer : Select the indication for which a progestin is used alone without combining with an estrogen: A. Threatened abortion B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C. Hormone replacement therapy D. Premenstrual tension

The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in human female is the large plasma surge of (a) LH (b) FSH (c) progesterone (d) estradiol.

Description : The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in human female is the large plasma surge of (a) LH (b) FSH (c) progesterone (d) estradiol.

Last Answer : (a) LH

What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans? (a) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis. (b) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging. (c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane. (d) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone.

Description : What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans? (a) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis. (b) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated ... receptors on ovarian cell membrane. (d) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone.

Last Answer : (c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane.

What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans ? (1) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone (2) Glucagon is secreted by -cells of Islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis (3) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging (4) If females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane

Description : What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans ? (1) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone (2) Glucagon is secreted by -cells of Islets of Langerhans and ... stimulated with aging (4) If females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane

Last Answer : (4) If females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Description : Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Last Answer : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

For the treatment of hypogonadism and impotence, testosterone/dihydrotestosterone can be administered by the following route/routes: A. Oral B. Intramuscular C. Transdermal D. Both 'B' and 'C

Description : For the treatment of hypogonadism and impotence, testosterone/dihydrotestosterone can be administered by the following route/routes: A. Oral B. Intramuscular C. Transdermal D. Both 'B' and 'C

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female. (a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium. (b) High level of FSH and LH facilitates implantation of the embryo. (c) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone. (d) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

Description : Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female. (a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium. (b) High level of FSH and LH ... synthesis of estrogen and progesterone. (d) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

Last Answer : (c) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.

Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function. Endocrine Hormone Function gland (a) Placenta Estrogen Initiates secretion of the milk (b) Corpus Estrogen Essential for luteum maintenance of endometrium (c) Leydig’s Androgen Initiates the cells production of sperms (d) Ovary FSH Stimulates follicular development and the secretion of estrogens

Description : Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function. Endocrine Hormone Function gland (a) Placenta Estrogen Initiates secretion of the milk (b) Corpus ... of sperms (d) Ovary FSH Stimulates follicular development and the secretion of estrogens

Last Answer : (c) Leydig’s Androgen Initiates the cells production of sperms

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of: A. Clotting factors in liver B. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium C. Cyclic AMP in platelets D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets

Description : Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of: A. Clotting factors in liver B. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium C. Cyclic AMP in platelets D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets

Last Answer : D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets

Progesterone administration: A. Suppresses onset of menstruation B. Induces watery cervical secretion C. Sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin D. Cornifies vaginal epithelium

Description : Progesterone administration: A. Suppresses onset of menstruation B. Induces watery cervical secretion C. Sensitizes the uterus to oxytocin D. Cornifies vaginal epithelium

Last Answer : A. Suppresses onset of menstruation

The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant

Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Description : Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property

In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries

Description : In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries

Last Answer : C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion

In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was (1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis (2) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo (3) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening (4) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening

Description : In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was (1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis (2) ... endometrial thickening (4) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening

Last Answer : (1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis

Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Description : Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Last Answer : Answer: c, d IL-6 is now recognized at the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Glucocorticoid hormones augment ... that generally inhibit the tissue destruction that is associated with the local initiation of inflammation

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Select the correct statement about tibolone: A. It is an antiestrogen used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast B. It is an estrogenic + progestational steroid used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women C. It is an antiandrogen used for male pattern baldness D. It is a nonsteroidal estrogen used topically for senile vaginitis

Description : Select the correct statement about tibolone: A. It is an antiestrogen used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast B. It is an estrogenic + progestational steroid used for hormone replacement ... for male pattern baldness D. It is a nonsteroidal estrogen used topically for senile vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It is an estrogenic + progestational steroid used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics: A. All have antiinflammatory property B. All lack dependence producing liability C. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms D. All inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics: A. All have antiinflammatory property B. All lack dependence producing liability C. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms D. All inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Last Answer : B. All lack dependence producing liability

Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin

The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Excretion in bile

Description : The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Excretion in bile

Last Answer : A. Glomerular filtration

Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except: A. Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis B. Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic β cells C. Augmenting glucagon secretion from pancreatic α cells D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

Last Answer : D. Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis

Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ammonia in the gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Description : Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ... gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Last Answer : B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria

A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

The most popular form of hormonal contraception is: A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill D. Depot progestin injection

Description : The most popular form of hormonal contraception is: A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill D. Depot progestin injection

Last Answer : A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill

All the following statements about FSH are true except (A) It is a tropic hormone secreted by anterior pituitary (B) Its secretion is increased by gonadotropin releasing hormone (C) It acts on Sertoli cells (D) It increases the synthesis of testosterone

Description : All the following statements about FSH are true except (A) It is a tropic hormone secreted by anterior pituitary (B) Its secretion is increased by gonadotropin releasing hormone (C) It acts on Sertoli cells (D) It increases the synthesis of testosterone

Last Answer : Answer : D

Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug

Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A

Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C

The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Description : The aim of iodine therapy before subtotal thyroidectomy in Grave’s disease is: A. To render the patient euthyroid B. To restore the iodine content of the thyroid gland C. To inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine into triiodothyronine D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Last Answer : D. To reduce friability and vascularity of the thyroid gland

Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Description : Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Last Answer : A. Factor VII

Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Last Answer : D. Lisinopri

Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Description : Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Last Answer : C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effec

The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor to interact with antithrombin III C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B

Description : The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor ... configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both A' and B

Last Answer : C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites

Select the compound which used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity: A. Tibolone B. Mestranol C. Desogestrel D. Gestodene

Description : Select the compound which used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women serves the purpose of both estrogen and progestin with weak androgenic activity: A. Tibolone B. Mestranol C. Desogestrel D. Gestodene

Last Answer : A. Tibolone

The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman

Description : The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman

Last Answer : C. Lower than that for contraception

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial infarction due to estrogen B. Blocks the increased risk of endometrial carcinoma due to estrogen C. Reverses vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial ... vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Last Answer : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens