The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor to interact with antithrombin III C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B

The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for
inhibition of factor Xa:
A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated
inhibition of factor XIIa
B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor to
interact with antithrombin III
C. Induction of a configurational change in
antithrombin III to expose its interacting
sites
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Induction of a configurational change in
antithrombin III to expose its interacting
sites
by

Related questions

he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi

Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Description : Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: A. Dopamine antagonism B. Adenosine antagonism C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Description : The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: A. Dopamine antagonism B. Adenosine antagonism C. Opening of neuronal chloride channels D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

Last Answer : D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated chloride influx

The primary action by which entacapone and tolcapone enhance the therapeutic effect of levodopa-carbidopa in parkinsonism is: A. Inhibition of levodopa methylation in the liver B. Inhibition of dopamine methylation in the brain C. Inhibition of oxidative deamination of dopamine in the brain D. Facilitation of active transport of levodopa across brain capillaries

Description : The primary action by which entacapone and tolcapone enhance the therapeutic effect of levodopa-carbidopa in parkinsonism is: A. Inhibition of levodopa methylation in the liver B. Inhibition of ... of dopamine in the brain D. Facilitation of active transport of levodopa across brain capillaries

Last Answer : A. Inhibition of levodopa methylation in the liver

Action of Insulin does not include the following: A. Facilitation of glucose transport into cells B. Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver D. Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue

Description : Action of Insulin does not include the following: A. Facilitation of glucose transport into cells B. Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver D. Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue

Last Answer : . Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein B. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase C. Inhibition of a viral protease enzyme D. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesi

Description : The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein B. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase C. Inhibition of a viral protease enzyme D. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesi

Last Answer : A. Interaction with the viral M2 protein

There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Description : There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Last Answer : Answer: a, b A number of hypercoaguable states are present. These include heparin-associated thrombocytopenia in which a heparin-dependent platelet antibody causes aggregation of ... soft tissue increasing vascular permeability and fragility resulting in the potential for bleeding disorders

As thrombin generation proceeds, the body has natural anticoagulant systems opposing further thrombus formation. Natural anticoagulants include: a. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) b. Antithrombin III c. Activated protein C d. Heparin cofactor II

Description : As thrombin generation proceeds, the body has natural anticoagulant systems opposing further thrombus formation. Natural anticoagulants include: a. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) b. Antithrombin III c. Activated protein C d. Heparin cofactor II

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Just as thrombin generation is the key to coagulation, antithrombin III is the most central anticoagulant proteins. This glycoprotein binds to thrombin, preventing its removal of ... in the body. Therefore, TPA is part of the fibrinolytic system rather than a natural anticoagulant

When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance

Description : When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance

Last Answer : Ans: A

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Description : Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Last Answer : B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition

The following are true about blood coagulation: a. heparin inhibits blood coagulation through its interference with vitamin K metabolism in the liver b. addition of vitamin K to freshly drawn blood delays clotting c. thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin d. platelets are essential for blood clot

Description : The following are true about blood coagulation: a. heparin inhibits blood coagulation through its interference with vitamin K metabolism in the liver b. addition of vitamin K to freshly drawn ... delays clotting c. thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin d. platelets are essential for blood clot

Last Answer : thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Description : The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

Last Answer : D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation

The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : The vasopressin action(s) mediated by V2 receptors include(s): A. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells B. Increased urea permeability of collecting duct cells C. Vasoconstriction D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Last Answer : Ans: D

Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it: A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion C. Does not affect vaginal cytology D. All of the above are correct

Description : Transdermal estradiol differs from oral estrogen therapy in that it: A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors B. Does not inhibit FSH secretion C. Does not affect vaginal cytology D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Causes less induction of hepatic synthesis of clotting factors

Aminoglycoside antibiotics exert the following action(s) on sensitive bacteria: A. Induce synthesis of defective proteins B. Make bacterial cell membrane more leaky C. Augment their own carrier mediated entry into the bacteria D. All of the above

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics exert the following action(s) on sensitive bacteria: A. Induce synthesis of defective proteins B. Make bacterial cell membrane more leaky C. Augment their own carrier mediated entry into the bacteria D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning coagulation tests? a. Prothrombin time (PT) measures both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways and fibrinogen b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can be used to monitor both oral anticoagulation with Warfarin and intravenous anticoagulation with heparin c. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a measurement of the time it takes for exogenously administered thrombin to turn plasma fibrinogen into fibrin clot d. Whole blood activated clotting time (ACT) is a measurement of the ability of whole blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascu

Description : Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ... is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascular operations

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Coagulation tests include prothrombin time (PT), which measures the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of fibrinogen production and is the most common method for ... more while for peripheral vascular applications, values of 250 seconds or greater are considered appropriate

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Description : When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Last Answer : C. Therapeutic window phenomenon

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Description : The following effect(s) of tamoxifen citrate indicate(s) that it possesses tissue specific estrogenic action as well: A. Inhibition of breast cancer cells B. Endometrial proliferation C. Hot flushes in premenopausal women D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferation

Methylxanthines exert the following action(s) at cellular/molecular level: A. Intracellular release of Ca2+ B. Antagonism of adenosine C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase D. All of the above

Description : Methylxanthines exert the following action(s) at cellular/molecular level: A. Intracellular release of Ca2+ B. Antagonism of adenosine C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod

Description : The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod

Last Answer : C. Protamine sulfate

The antidotal effect of sodium nitrite in cyanide poisoning is dependent upon: A. Chemical combination of sodium nitrite with cyanide B. Vasodilatation caused by sodium nitrite C. Conversion of haemoglobin to methaemoglobin by sodium nitrite D. Facilitation of cyanocobalamine formation by sodium nitrite

Description : The antidotal effect of sodium nitrite in cyanide poisoning is dependent upon: A. Chemical combination of sodium nitrite with cyanide B. Vasodilatation caused by sodium nitrite C. ... haemoglobin to methaemoglobin by sodium nitrite D. Facilitation of cyanocobalamine formation by sodium nitrite

Last Answer : C. Conversion of haemoglobin to methaemoglobin by sodium nitrite

Cervical priming with prostaglandin results in: A. Facilitation of sperm movement through cervical canal B. Increased cervical tone C. Softening of cervix D. Increased cervical secretions

Description : Cervical priming with prostaglandin results in: A. Facilitation of sperm movement through cervical canal B. Increased cervical tone C. Softening of cervix D. Increased cervical secretions

Last Answer : C. Softening of cervix

The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial fibres occurs progressively with each contraction C. Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial ... +ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both A' and B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis C. They bind to 50S ribosomes and interfere with translocation of the growing peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle. C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions

The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Description : The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Last Answer : . Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation

Description : The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor: A. Vasoconstriction B. Bradycardia C. EDRF release D. Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : B. Bradycardia

Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Intrinsic pathway

Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because: A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice B. Its active forms have selective affinity for the H+K+ATPase located in the apical canaliculi of gastric parietal cells C. Its cationic forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi D. All of the above

Description : Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because: A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice B. Its ... forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Phenytoin appears to derive its anticonvulsant action from: A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges B. Selective inhibition of epileptic focus C. Selective inhibition T-type Ca2+ current in brain cells D. Selective enhancement of inhibitory transmission in the brain

Description : Phenytoin appears to derive its anticonvulsant action from: A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges B. Selective inhibition of epileptic focus C. Selective inhibition T-type Ca2+ current in brain cells D. Selective enhancement of inhibitory transmission in the brain

Last Answer : A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges

Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Description : Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy: A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor X D. Prothrombin

Last Answer : A. Factor VII

The most probable mechanism of action of mebendazole is: A. Depolarization of membrane and spastic paralysis of the worm B. Hyperpolarization of membrane and flaccid paralysis of the worm C. Loss of intracellular microtubules and inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm D. Tegument damage and leakage of contents of the worm

Description : The most probable mechanism of action of mebendazole is: A. Depolarization of membrane and spastic paralysis of the worm B. Hyperpolarization of membrane and flaccid paralysis of the worm C. Loss of ... inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm D. Tegument damage and leakage of contents of the worm

Last Answer : C. Loss of intracellular microtubules and inhibition of glucose uptake in the worm

Bactericidal action of aminoglycoside antibiotics is due to: A. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis B. Alteration of bacterial cell membrane permeability C. Damage to bacterial cell wall D. Inhibition of bacterial oxidative metabolism

Description : Bactericidal action of aminoglycoside antibiotics is due to: A. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis B. Alteration of bacterial cell membrane permeability C. Damage to bacterial cell wall D. Inhibition of bacterial oxidative metabolism

Last Answer : B. Alteration of bacterial cell membrane permeability

TThe most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Description : The most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Last Answer : B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation

What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Description : What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

In gas-liquid contact operation, the number of ideal stages, N = (xa - xb )/(xb - x *b ). This is true when the stripping factor 'S' is (A) S > 1 (B) S < 1 (C) S = 1 (D) S = ∞

Description : In gas-liquid contact operation, the number of ideal stages, N = (xa - xb )/(xb - x *b ). This is true when the stripping factor 'S' is (A) S > 1 (B) S < 1 (C) S = 1 (D) S = ∞

Last Answer : (A) S > 1

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors

What is considered to be the safe limit of daily alcohol consumption by an adult man in the absence of contraindications and interacting drugs: A. 20-40 ml of ****** B. 50-100 ml of ****** C. 120-180 ml of ****** D. 200-300 ml of ******

Description : What is considered to be the safe limit of daily alcohol consumption by an adult man in the absence of contraindications and interacting drugs: A. 20-40 ml of whisky B. 50-100 ml of whisky C. 120-180 ml of whisky D. 200-300 ml of whisky

Last Answer : B. 50-100 ml of whisky

hat is/are the consequence(s) of myocardial Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition by digoxin: A. Increased intracellular Na+ ion concentration B. Increased cytosolic Ca2+ ion concentration C. Increased intracellular K+ ion concentration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : hat is/are the consequence(s) of myocardial Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition by digoxin: A. Increased intracellular Na+ ion concentration B. Increased cytosolic Ca2+ ion concentration C. Increased intracellular K+ ion concentration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : B. Activated partial thromboplastin time