The drug/drugs that can be used to treat osteoporosis is/are: A. Raloxifene B. Alendronate C. Pamidronate D. Both 'A' and 'B

The drug/drugs that can be used to treat osteoporosis is/are:
A. Raloxifene
B. Alendronate
C. Pamidronate
D. Both 'A' and 'B
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both 'A' and 'B'
by

Related questions

Select the drug for which the following instructions must be given to the patient "To be taken on empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water (not milk, tea or coffee), to remain upright and not take any food or medicine for 30 min": A. Alfacalcidol B. Alendronate C. Glibenclamide D. Raloxifene

Description : Select the drug for which the following instructions must be given to the patient "To be taken on empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water (not milk, tea or coffee), to remain ... not take any food or medicine for 30 min": A. Alfacalcidol B. Alendronate C. Glibenclamide D. Raloxifene

Last Answer : B. Alendronate

Which of the following is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that improves bone mineral density in postmenopausal women: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Raloxifene C. Ormeloxifene D. Alendronate

Description : Which of the following is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that improves bone mineral density in postmenopausal women: A. Clomiphene citrate B. Raloxifene C. Ormeloxifene D. Alendronate

Last Answer : B. Raloxifene

The drug of choice for hypoparathyroidism is: A. Parathormone B. Calcium lactate C. Vitamin D D. Pamidronate

Description : The drug of choice for hypoparathyroidism is: A. Parathormone B. Calcium lactate C. Vitamin D D. Pamidronate

Last Answer : C. Vitamin D

Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Description : Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Last Answer : A. Mifepristone

The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Description : The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to the drug C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Description : Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

Indicate the drug(s) that is/are used to treat chronic hepatitis B: A. Human interferon α B. Lamivudine C. Amantadine D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : Indicate the drug(s) that is/are used to treat chronic hepatitis B: A. Human interferon α B. Lamivudine C. Amantadine D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B'

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Description : Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

The following is correct about antipsychotic drugs except: A. They only control symptoms of schizophrenia without affecting the basic disorder B. Combination of two or more antipsychotic drugs is more efficacious than any single drug C. In treating psychosis high potency drugs are preferred over low potency drugs D. They donot produce dependence

Description : The following is correct about antipsychotic drugs except: A. They only control symptoms of schizophrenia without affecting the basic disorder B. Combination of two or more antipsychotic drugs is ... psychosis high potency drugs are preferred over low potency drugs D. They donot produce dependence

Last Answer : B. Combination of two or more antipsychotic drugs is more efficacious than any single drug

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium

Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Description : Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2

Last Answer : A. CYP 3A4

What is true of ivermectin: A. It is the most effective drug for strongyloidosis B. It is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis C. It can be used to treat pediculosis D. All of the above

Description : What is true of ivermectin: A. It is the most effective drug for strongyloidosis B. It is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis C. It can be used to treat pediculosis D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton

Description : Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton

Last Answer : B. Ivermectin

Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Last Answer : C. Metronidazole

Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Description : Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria

Last Answer : B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria

A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Description : Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Last Answer : B. Foscarnet

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection

Description : Antimicrobial drug combinations are aimed at achieving the following except: A. Faster and more complete elimination of the infecting organism B. Treat infection when nature and sensitivity of the infecting organism is not definite C. Prevent emergence of resistant strains D. Prevent superinfection

Last Answer : D. Prevent superinfection

Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and do not give any anticonvulsant drug B. Continuous phenobarbitone prophylaxis till the age of 10 years C. Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Description : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Last Answer : A. Takes about one week to develop

Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Description : Leishmania donovani is susceptible to certain antifungal drugs because both fungi and Leishmania: A. Utilise purine salvage pathway B. Utilise similar glycolytic mechanisms C. Have similar topoisomerase II enzyme D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Last Answer : D. Have ergosterol in their cell membranes

Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient

Prokinetic drugs serve the following purpose(s) in gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus B. Promote healing of esophagitis C. Reduce acidity of gastric contents D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Prokinetic drugs serve the following purpose(s) in gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus B. Promote healing of esophagitis C. Reduce acidity of gastric contents D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus

Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits: A. Terminate anginal attacks B. Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks C. Retard the progression of coronary artery disease D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits: A. Terminate anginal attacks B. Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks C. Retard the progression of coronary artery disease D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Which of the following drugs can afford both haemodynamic improvement as well as disease modifying benefits in CHF: A. Furosemide B. Milrinone C. Losartan D. Digoxin

Description : Which of the following drugs can afford both haemodynamic improvement as well as disease modifying benefits in CHF: A. Furosemide B. Milrinone C. Losartan D. Digoxin

Last Answer : C. Losartan

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin

Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin

Last Answer : C. Linezolid