The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be
reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple
drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in
this patient is:
A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3
months
B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs
C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug
D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs
by

Related questions

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Description : ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Last Answer : D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Description : The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Last Answer : D. Any of the above

Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C

If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Description : If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum ... soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Last Answer : Ans: A

Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Description : Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Last Answer : B. Foscarnet

Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient

The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Description : The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Last Answer : A. Stavudine

A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Last Answer : C. Three weeks

Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Description : Combination therapy with two (or more) antimicrobials is superior to monotherapy with any single effective drug in case of the following diseases except: A. Typhoid fever B. Leprosy C. AIDS D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Last Answer : A. Typhoid fever

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Description : A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated: A. Epoetin B. Cyanocobalamin C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxine

Last Answer : A. Epoetin

Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Description : Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF

In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Description : In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : A. Prednisolone

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

Description : Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

Last Answer : D. Diuretics

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. Prothrombin value (INR) of 3 is enough to perform extraction C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous

Description : Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. ... takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous

Last Answer : C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects

What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy

What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients

Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral treatment affords the following benefit(s) in HIV infection: A. Increases CD4 leucocyte count B. Reduces the incidence of opportunistic infections in AIDS patients C. Increases survival time in AIDS patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should be done to the oral prednisolone medication after starting inhaled beclomethasone: A. It should be stopped immediately B. Its dose should be tapered from the next day C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Description : 6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should ... week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Last Answer : C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the other drug his BP fell precipitously. The most likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : B. Captopril

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Last Answer : C. 16 hours

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Description : An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV

Last Answer : a. 1,000; stage II

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc