In spinal anaesthesia the segmental level of: A. Sympathetic block is lower than the sensory block B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block C. Motor block is higher than the sensory block D. Sympathetic, motor and sensory block has the same level

In spinal anaesthesia the segmental level of:
A. Sympathetic block is lower than the sensory
block
B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block
C. Motor block is higher than the sensory block
D. Sympathetic, motor and sensory block has
the same level
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block
by

Related questions

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Last Answer : D. All of the above factors

The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Last Answer : A. Infiltration anaesthesia

Spinal anaesthesia is not suitable for: A. Vaginal delivery B. Lower segment caesarian section C. Prostatectomy D. Operations on mentally ill patients

Description : Spinal anaesthesia is not suitable for: A. Vaginal delivery B. Lower segment caesarian section C. Prostatectomy D. Operations on mentally ill patients

Last Answer : D. Operations on mentally ill patient

The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

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Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient

Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. It distributes more in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

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Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres B. More slender fibres have shorter internodal distances C. Small sensory fibres generate higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

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Last Answer : A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres

Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

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Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

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Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

The ciliary ganglion: a. is found between the optic nerve and the medial rectus b. contains sympathetic nerve that supplies the sphincter pupillae c. is a parasympathetic relay ganglion for fibers from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus d. contains sensory nerve e. has a motor nerve that goes to the inferior oblique

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Last Answer : is a parasympathetic relay ganglion for fibers from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus

Intravenous regional anaesthesia is suitable for: A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb B. Vascular surgery on the lower limb C. Head and neck surgery D. Caesarian section

Description : Intravenous regional anaesthesia is suitable for: A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb B. Vascular surgery on the lower limb C. Head and neck surgery D. Caesarian section

Last Answer : A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of (a) commissural impulses (b) integrating impulses (c) sensory impulses (d) voluntary motor impulses

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Last Answer : (d) voluntary motor impulses.

Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

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Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. Increasing cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

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General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

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Last Answer : D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre

The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

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Vasoconstrictors should not be used in (a) Neurogenic shock (b) Haemorrhagic shock (c) Secondary shock (d) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia

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Last Answer : Ans: C

Vasoconstrictors should not be used in: A. Neurogenic shock B. Haemorrhagic shock C. Secondary shock D. Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia

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Which controls reflex action? Options: A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) Sensory nerves

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The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

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Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment

A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine

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Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

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nduction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by: A. Transient apnoea B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure C. Pain in the injected vein D. All of the above

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The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

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s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

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Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine

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Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive

Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia: A. Appearance of tears in eyes B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs C. Fall in blood pressure D. Patient makes swallowing movements

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No surgical operation should be performed during the following stage of anaesthesia: A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III, plane 1 D. Stage III, plane 3

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Surface anaesthesia is used for the following except: A. Ocular tonometry B. Urethral dilatation C. Tooth extraction D. Anal fissure

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Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate

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Last Answer : D. Benoxinate

Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

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Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Indications of centrally acting muscle relaxants include all of the following except: A. Balanced anaesthesia B. Traumatic muscle spasms C. Torticollis D. Electroconvulsive therapy

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Last Answer : A. Balanced anaesthesia

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

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Last Answer : D. Redistribution

What do sympathetic division fibers leave the spinal cord in?

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Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer

A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The low blood pressure can be assumed to be due to neurogenic shock b. The sole cause of hypotension is the loss of sympathetic input to the venous system c. Despite significant hypotension, secondary organ injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Description : A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/ ... injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Last Answer : Answer: c Neurogenic shock results from interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input and develops after spinal cord injury, spinal anesthesia, and severe head injury. Under normal conditions, baseline ... the cause is not neurogenic and search for occult blood loss or cardiogenic causes of shock

Safe limit of daily alcohol consumption is: A. Same for men and women B. Relatively lower for women than for men C. Relatively higher for women than for men D. Less than half for women than for men

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Last Answer : B. Relatively lower for women than for men

The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman

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Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

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Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

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Last Answer : B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

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Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Shortacting nifedipine formulation is not recommended now for treatment of hypertension because: A. It tends to increase heart rate and cardiac work B. It invokes pronounced reflex sympathetic discharges C. It can impair haemodynamics in patients with diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above

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Last Answer : D. All of the above

The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

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Last Answer : D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart

Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity C. Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

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