A patient returning from dinner party meets with road
accident and has to be urgently operated upon under
general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected
intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying:
A. Methylpolysiloxane
B. Promethazine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Apomorphine

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Metoclopramide

Related questions

Description : Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Last Answer : D. All of the above factors

Description : The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine

Last Answer : B. Ondansetron

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP (a) Noradrenaline (b) Isoprenaline (c) Mephentermine (d) Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : nduction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by: A. Transient apnoea B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure C. Pain in the injected vein D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Last Answer : A. Ondansetron

Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4

Description : Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis

Last Answer : B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Description : The most effective antimotion sickness drug suitable for short brisk journies is: A. Promethazine theoclate B. Cinnarizine C. Prochlorperazine D. Hyoscine

Last Answer : D. Hyoscine

Description : The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic medication for prolonged operations: A. Atropine B. Morphine C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine

Last Answer : D. Ranitidine

Description : Select the drug that suppresses essential tremor, but not parkinsonian tremor: A. Procyclidine B. Propranolol C. Promethazine D. Prochlorperazine

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Description : An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will ... He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Last Answer : D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Description : The main advantage of ketorolac over aspirin is that ketorolac (a) Can be combined more safely with an opioid such as codeine (b) Can be obtained as an over-the-counter agent (c) Does not ... (e) Is less likely to cause acute renal failure in patients with some preexisting degree of renal impairment

Last Answer : Ans: D

Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Cisapride

Description : The progastrokinetic action of the following drug(s) is attenuated by atropine: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Description : Which prokinetic drug(s) produce(s) extrapyramidal side effects: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Metoclopramide

Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Description : The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid

Last Answer : B. Pyridoxine

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis

Description : Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia: A. Appearance of tears in eyes B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs C. Fall in blood pressure D. Patient makes swallowing movements

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure

Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient

Description : The most dependable emetic used to expel ingested poisons is: A. Intramuscular emetine B. Oral syrup ipecacuanha C. Intramuscular apomorphine D. Oral bromocriptine

Last Answer : C. Intramuscular apomorphine

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Last Answer : D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Last Answer : B. Clonidine

Description : Adrenaline injected with a local anaesthetic: A. Reduces local toxicity of the local anaesthetic B. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic C. Shortens duration of local anaesthesia D. Makes the injection less painful

Last Answer : B. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Last Answer : C. Astemizole

Description : A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor? (a) Blood group B (b) Blood group AB (c) Blood group O (d) Blood group A

Last Answer : (c) Blood group O

Description : A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor ? (1) Blood group A (2) Blood group B (3) Blood group AB (4) Blood group O

Last Answer : (4) Blood group O

Description : Cancer chemotherapy induced vomiting that is not controlled by metoclopramide alone can be suppressed by combining it with: A. Amphetamine B. Dexamethasone C. Hyoscine D. Cyclizine

Last Answer : B. Dexamethasone

Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Last Answer : C. Domperidone

Description : Select the correct statement regarding the antiemetic efficacy of the three prokinetic drugs metoclopramide, domperidone and cisapride: A. Cisapride is the most effective B. Metoclopramide is the most effective C. Domperidone is the most effective D. All three are equally efficacious

Last Answer : B. Metoclopramide is the most effective

Description : The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase

Description : 16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : C. Bromocriptine

Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate

Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Allopurinol

Description : Medium -length nasoenteric tubes are used for: a) Feeding Placement of the tube must be verified prior to any feeding. b) Decompression A gastric sump and nasoenteric tube are used for ... aspiration. d) Emptying Gastric sump tubes are used to decompress the stomach and keep it empty.

Last Answer : a) Feeding Placement of the tube must be verified prior to any feeding.

Description : Which of the following agents and dosage regimens is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered sensitive to aspirin (experiences bronchospasm with use)? ... once a week (d) Azathioprine, 75 mg daily (e) Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg daily

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the ... pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas