Description : Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate
Last Answer : D. Benoxinate
Description : Histamine exerts the following actions except: A. Dilatation of large blood vessels B. Dilatation of small blood vessels C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart D. Itching
Last Answer : A. Dilatation of large blood vessels
Description : Anal fissure?
Last Answer : DefinitionAn anal fissure is a small split or tear in the thin moist tissue (mucosa) lining the lower rectum (anus).Causes, incidence, and risk factorsAnal fissures are extremely common in ... and persons with Crohn's disease.SymptomsAnal fissures may cause painful bowel movements and bleeding. Ther
Description : Anal fissure - series?
Last Answer : Normal anatomyThe anus is a sphincter at the end of the rectum through which passes stool during defecation. The anal sphincter is a critical mechanism for control of fecal continence.IndicationAnal fissures are tears in ... . Also reviewed by David Zieve, MD, MHA, Medical Director, A.D.A.M., Inc.
Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.
Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).
Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm
Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events
Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane
Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment
Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating
Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action
Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient
Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful
Description : Indications of centrally acting muscle relaxants include all of the following except: A. Balanced anaesthesia B. Traumatic muscle spasms C. Torticollis D. Electroconvulsive therapy
Last Answer : A. Balanced anaesthesia
Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them
Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them
Description : Amalgam restoration, when do you have to replace it? a. Ditching of the edges. b. The probe penetrates the area between the margin and tooth tissue. c. Fissure of the surface of the amalgam. d. When there is chronic inflammation of the pulp.
Last Answer : c. Fissure of the surface of the amalgam.
Description : Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts
Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut
Description : The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide
Last Answer : A. Thioridazine
Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide
Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol
Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects
Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers
Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers
Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine
Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects
Description : What is TRUE in regard to the preparation of occlusal rests: A. Use an inverted cone bur B. Use a flat fissure bur C. Parallel to occlusal plane D. At right angle to the long axis of tooth E. None of the above
Last Answer : E. None of the above
Description : A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine
Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide
Description : nduction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by: A. Transient apnoea B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure C. Pain in the injected vein D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium
Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine
Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive
Description : Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia: A. Appearance of tears in eyes B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs C. Fall in blood pressure D. Patient makes swallowing movements
Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure
Description : No surgical operation should be performed during the following stage of anaesthesia: A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III, plane 1 D. Stage III, plane 3
Last Answer : B. Stage II
Description : Intravenous regional anaesthesia is suitable for: A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb B. Vascular surgery on the lower limb C. Head and neck surgery D. Caesarian section
Last Answer : A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb
Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes
Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia
Description : Spinal anaesthesia is not suitable for: A. Vaginal delivery B. Lower segment caesarian section C. Prostatectomy D. Operations on mentally ill patients
Last Answer : D. Operations on mentally ill patient
Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia
Last Answer : A. Histamine release
Description : In spinal anaesthesia the segmental level of: A. Sympathetic block is lower than the sensory block B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block C. Motor block is higher than the sensory block D. Sympathetic, motor and sensory block has the same level
Last Answer : B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block
Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors
Last Answer : D. All of the above factors
Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia
Last Answer : A. Infiltration anaesthesia
Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia
Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution
Last Answer : D. Redistribution
Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : All of the following should be considered for systemic antibiotic except: A. Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute. C. ... of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis D. Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease
Last Answer : B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute.
Description : Tonometry?
Last Answer : DefinitionTonometry is a test to measure the pressure inside your eyes. The test is used to screen for glaucoma.Alternative NamesIntraocular pressure (IOP) measurement; Glaucoma testHow the test is performedThere ... the tonometer touches the cornea. The light is usually a blue circle. The health
Description : Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made ... clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.
Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock
Description : To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity
Last Answer : A. Strong local anaesthetic activity
Description : When magma reaches the surface of the earth, is called (a) Lava (b) Crater (c) Fissure (d) Clay
Last Answer : (a) Lava
Description : the location of Class V is in, A. The buccal pit /fissure/ B. The occlusal surface C. The cervical third
Last Answer : C. The cervical third
Description : Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in preventing caries of: A. Pit and fissure B. Smooth surface C. Inaccessible areas
Last Answer : A. Pit and fissure
Description : Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the oral cavity as, A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue B. Furrows outlined the ... (fissures) radiating from a central fissure G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue
Last Answer : C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas
Description : Urethral Bleeeding after Surgery - Should I be Concerned?
Last Answer : I'm not a woman, so anatomically I can't relate of course. I have a personal rule of thumb, kind of to the effect that if your healthcare provider is any good, and bleeding was to be ... in and mentioned bleeding they didn't go haywire, so I'd assume some post-procedural bleeding was expected.
Description : Is there any way I can prevent a urethral stricture?
Last Answer : Here are some suggestions from the National Institutes of Health regarding treatment of recurrent UTIs. Treatment options include suppressive antibiotics, home diagnosis and treatment, and significant ... might also consider taking some probiotics to help establish a more normal vaginal flora.
Description : Assertion: During micturition, urine is prevented from flowing back into the ureters. Reason: Urethral sphincters contract during micturition
Last Answer : Assertion: During micturition, urine is prevented from flowing back into the ureters. Reason: Urethral ... D. If both Assertion and Reason are false