Description : Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether
Last Answer : D. Ether
Description : Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane
Last Answer : D. Desflurane
Description : The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
Last Answer : A. Ether
Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam
Last Answer : C. Ketamine
Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium
Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia
Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo
Last Answer : D. Propofol
Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether
Last Answer : B. Halothane
Description : The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide
Last Answer : A. Halothane
Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating
Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action
Description : The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
Last Answer : B. Nitrous oxide
Description : Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane
Last Answer : D. Halothane
Description : Strychnine produces convulsions by: A. Stimulating NMDA receptors B. Facilitating the excitatory transmitter glutamate C. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter GABA D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine
Last Answer : D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine
Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures
Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug
Description : Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan
Last Answer : C. Candesartan
Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells
Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action
Description : Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time
Last Answer : B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition
Description : A. It is a clonidine congener used in spasticity due to stroke or spinal injury B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors C. It inhibits release of excitatory amino-acids in spinal interneurones D. It reduces muscle spasms without producing weaknes
Last Answer : B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors
Description : The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is: A. Pentobarbitone B. Phenobarbitone C. Butabarbitone D. Thiopentone
Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone
Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane
Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment
Description : Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium
Last Answer : A. Nitrous oxide
Description : The cardiac muscarinic receptors (a) Are of the M1 subtype (b) Are of the M2 subtype (c) Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine (d) Function through the PIP2 ? IP3/DAG pathway
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : The following are true about the muscarinic receptors: a. they are found at the postganglionic parasympathetic synapses b. they can be selectively blocked by atropine c. M1 muscarinic receptors are found in the brain d. all above
Last Answer : all above
Description : The following are true about acetylcholine receptors: a. receptors at all autonomic ganglia are nicotinic b. receptors at the skeletal neuromuscular junction are muscarinic c. ... atropine d. acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine
Last Answer : acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine
Description : The cardiac muscarinic receptors: A. Are of the M1 subtype B. Are of the M2 subtype C. Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine D. Function through the PIP2 → IP3/DAG pathway
Last Answer : B. Are of the M2 subtype
Description : Antibiotic (A) Inhibits/destroys the growth of microorganisms (B) Is used as a pain reliever (C) Is an antimalarial (D) Is an anaestheticc
Last Answer : (A) Inhibits/destroys the growth of microorganisms
Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage
Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity
Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity
Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical
Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron
Last Answer : C. Domperidone
Description : Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: A. Urokinase B. Streptokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C
Last Answer : C. Alteplase
Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct
Description : Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : A. Intrinsic pathway
Description : Organic nitrates have predominantly venodilator action because: A. They are selectively concentrated in veins B. Veins express larger quantities of enzymes that generate nitric oxide from nitrates C. Venous smooth muscle has greater capacity to relax D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : B. Veins express larger quantities of enzymes that generate nitric oxide from nitrates
Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The antidepressant which selectively blocks 5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is: A. Fluoxetine B. Amoxapine C. Desipramine D. Dothiepin
Last Answer : A. Fluoxetine
Description : The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase
Description : The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location
Description : Low doses of aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthesis of the following mediator in the platelets: A. Thromboxane A2 B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Platelet activating factor D. Prostacyclin
Last Answer : A. Thromboxane
Description : The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Description : Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease
Last Answer : C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation
Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine
Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive
Description : The following factor delays induction with an inhaled general anaesthetic: A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture
Last Answer : A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch
Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching
Last Answer : C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics
Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues
Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration
Description : he minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its: A. Potency B. Therapeutic index C. Diffusibility D. Oil: water partition coefficient
Last Answer : A. Potency
Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes
Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia
Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient
Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors
Last Answer : D. All of the above factors
Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia
Last Answer : A. Infiltration anaesthesia