Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine
Last Answer : D. Ketamine
Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam
Last Answer : C. Ketamine
Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium
Description : Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane
Last Answer : D. Desflurane
Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether
Last Answer : B. Halothane
Description : The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide
Last Answer : A. Halothane
Description : The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
Last Answer : B. Nitrous oxide
Description : The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
Last Answer : A. Ether
Description : Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane
Last Answer : D. Halothane
Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo
Last Answer : D. Propofol
Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia
Description : The following adverse effect can occur even long after withdrawal of the offending drug: A. Paradoxical tachycardia B. Tardive dyskinesia C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Gynaecomastia
Last Answer : B. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating
Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action
Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine
Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive
Description : Malignant hyperthermia?
Last Answer : DefinitionMalignant hyperthermia is an inherited disease that causes a rapid rise in body temperature (fever) and severe muscle contractions when the affected person receives general ... or higherMuscle rigidityand stiffnessDark brown urineMuscle ache without obvious exercise to explain sore
Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant ... develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.
Last Answer : a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.
Description : The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is: A. Pentobarbitone B. Phenobarbitone C. Butabarbitone D. Thiopentone
Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone
Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane
Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment
Description : Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium
Last Answer : A. Nitrous oxide
Description : The most likely complication of prolonged use of nasal decongestant drops is: A. Atrophic rhinitis B. Hypertrophy of nasal mucosa C. Naso-pharyngeal moniliasis D. Blockage of eustachian tubes
Last Answer : A. Atrophic rhinitis
Description : The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is: A. Hypotension B. Bleeding C. Fever D. Anaphylaxis
Last Answer : B. Bleeding
Description : Intravenous saline infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complication(s) of vigorous furosemide therapy: A. Dilutional hyponatremia B. Acute saline depletion C. Hypokalemia D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. Acute saline depletion
Description : Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The pair of compounds used as anaesthetic in medicines : (1) Ether, Ammonia (2) Nitrous oxide, Chloroform (3) Chloroform, Nitrogen dioxide (4) Nitrogen dioxide, ether
Last Answer : Nitrous oxide, Chloroform
Description : The following is true about use of prednisolone in malignant diseases except: A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia B. It is used in Hodgkin’s disease C. It controls hypercalcaemia in patients with bony metastasis D. It affords symptomatic relief in most cancer patients
Last Answer : A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia
Description : What is true of thalidomide: A. It exerts antitumour activity in some solid malignant tumours B. It ameliorates cancer associated cachexia C. It exerts antileprotic action D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. It ameliorates cancer associated cachexia
Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously
Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells
Description : Which of the following neoplastic diseases is almost curable by chemotherapy: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Colorectal carcinoma
Last Answer : B. Choriocarcinoma
Description : Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension
Last Answer : A. Pregnancy induced hypertension
Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues
Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration
Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching
Last Answer : C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics
Description : The following factor delays induction with an inhaled general anaesthetic: A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture
Last Answer : A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch
Description : he minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its: A. Potency B. Therapeutic index C. Diffusibility D. Oil: water partition coefficient
Last Answer : A. Potency
Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes
Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia
Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient
Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors
Last Answer : D. All of the above factors
Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia
Last Answer : A. Infiltration anaesthesia
Description : Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate
Last Answer : D. Benoxinate
Description : The following local anaesthetic is poorly water soluble, PABA derivative and primarily used for anorectal lesions, wounds and ulcers: A. Benzocaine B. Dibucaine C. Procaine D. Benoxinate
Last Answer : A. Benzocaine
Description : Which of the following statements is true for lignocaine: A. It is an ester-linked local anaesthetic B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine C. It has a shorter duration of action than procaine D. It is not a surface anaesthetic
Last Answer : B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine
Description : The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine
Last Answer : C. Bupivacaine
Description : Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic: A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Tetracaine D. Benoxinate
Last Answer : A. Procaine
Description : The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine
Last Answer : A. Cocaine
Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful
Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic
Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia
Description : Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic: A. Pain B. Temperature C. Touch D. Deep pressure
Last Answer : A. Pain
Description : The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor ... the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form
Last Answer : C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state
Description : The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic
Last Answer : D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesth