Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane

Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is
metabolized in the body to a significant extent:
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Ether
D. Halothane
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Halothane
by

Related questions

The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Description : The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Last Answer : B. Nitrous oxide

The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Description : The following anaesthetic can be used by the open drop method: A. Ether B. Desflurane C. Halothane D. Isoflurane

Last Answer : A. Ether

The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide

Description : The general anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is: A. Halothane B. Enflurane C. Ether D. Nitrous oxide

Last Answer : A. Halothane

Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane

Description : Select the general anaesthetic that is particularly suitable for outpatient surgery because of quick recovery and short-lived post-anaesthetic psychomotor impairment: A. Ether B. Halothane C. Enflurane D. Desflurane

Last Answer : D. Desflurane

Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether

Last Answer : B. Halothane

Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether

Description : Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether

Last Answer : D. Ether

The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment

Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Last Answer : C. Ketamine

he minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its: A. Potency B. Therapeutic index C. Diffusibility D. Oil: water partition coefficient

Description : he minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its: A. Potency B. Therapeutic index C. Diffusibility D. Oil: water partition coefficient

Last Answer : A. Potency

s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Last Answer : D. Ketamine

Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine

Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine

Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive

Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching

Last Answer : C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics

Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They ... cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Last Answer : A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium

Description : Second gas effect’ is exerted by the following gas when coadministered with halothane: A. Nitrous oxide B. Cyclopropane C. Nitrogen D. Helium

Last Answer : A. Nitrous oxide

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation C. They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

The pair of compounds used as anaesthetic in medicines : (1) Ether, Ammonia (2) Nitrous oxide, Chloroform (3) Chloroform, Nitrogen dioxide (4) Nitrogen dioxide, ether

Description : The pair of compounds used as anaesthetic in medicines : (1) Ether, Ammonia (2) Nitrous oxide, Chloroform (3) Chloroform, Nitrogen dioxide (4) Nitrogen dioxide, ether

Last Answer : Nitrous oxide, Chloroform

The following factor delays induction with an inhaled general anaesthetic: A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture

Description : The following factor delays induction with an inhaled general anaesthetic: A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch B. Hyperventilation C. Low blood:gas partition coefficient of the anaesthetic D. Inclusion of 5% carbon dioxide in the inhaled gas mixture

Last Answer : A. Alveolar perfusion-ventilation mismatch

The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia

Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo

Last Answer : D. Propofol

'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient

The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Last Answer : D. All of the above factors

n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Last Answer : A. Infiltration anaesthesia

Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate

Description : Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : D. Benoxinate

The following local anaesthetic is poorly water soluble, PABA derivative and primarily used for anorectal lesions, wounds and ulcers: A. Benzocaine B. Dibucaine C. Procaine D. Benoxinate

Description : The following local anaesthetic is poorly water soluble, PABA derivative and primarily used for anorectal lesions, wounds and ulcers: A. Benzocaine B. Dibucaine C. Procaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : A. Benzocaine

Which of the following statements is true for lignocaine: A. It is an ester-linked local anaesthetic B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine C. It has a shorter duration of action than procaine D. It is not a surface anaesthetic

Description : Which of the following statements is true for lignocaine: A. It is an ester-linked local anaesthetic B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine C. It has a shorter duration of action than procaine D. It is not a surface anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. It is not likely to exhibit cross-sensitivity with procaine

The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Description : The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Last Answer : C. Bupivacaine

Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic: A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Tetracaine D. Benoxinate

Description : Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic: A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Tetracaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : A. Procaine

The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine

Description : The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall: A. Cocaine B. Dibucaine C. Lignocaine D. Procaine

Last Answer : A. Cocaine

Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic: A. Pain B. Temperature C. Touch D. Deep pressure

Description : Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic: A. Pain B. Temperature C. Touch D. Deep pressure

Last Answer : A. Pain

The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor only from the intraneuronal face of the Na+ channel C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Description : The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor ... the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Last Answer : C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state

The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Description : The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that the amidelinked local anaesthetics: A. Are not surface anaesthetics B. Have a shorter duration of action C. Are degraded in the plasma D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesthetic

Last Answer : D. Do not show cross-sensitivity with esterlinked local anaesth

Use of morphine in preanaesthetic medication: A. Is routine except in the presence of contraindications B. Is restricted to patients being anaesthetised with ether C. Should be made only in combination with atropine D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperativel

Description : Use of morphine in preanaesthetic medication: A. Is routine except in the presence of contraindications B. Is restricted to patients being anaesthetised with ether C. Should be made only in combination with atropine D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperativel

Last Answer : D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperatively

If a patient being anaesthetised with ether is unconscious, has regular respiration, blood pressure and heart rate are normal, corneal reflex is present and eyeballs are roving, the patient is in: A. Stage II B. Stage III plane 1 C. Stage III plane 2 D. Stage III plane 3

Description : If a patient being anaesthetised with ether is unconscious, has regular respiration, blood pressure and heart rate are normal, corneal reflex is present and eyeballs are roving, the patient is in: A. Stage II B. Stage III plane 1 C. Stage III plane 2 D. Stage III plane 3

Last Answer : B. Stage III plane 1

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Description : In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Last Answer : C. Inhalational

Gemfibrozil has the following features except: A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides B. It tends to raise plasma HDL-cholesterol level C. It is a first line drug for type III, type IV and type V hyperlipoproteinemia D. It reduces the incidence of myocardial infarctio

Description : Gemfibrozil has the following features except: A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides B. It tends to raise plasma HDL-cholesterol level C. It is a first ... type III, type IV and type V hyperlipoproteinemia D. It reduces the incidence of myocardial infarctio

Last Answer : A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'