Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin
Last Answer : B. Zolpidem
Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil
Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones
Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc
Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action
Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Description : Estrogens exert the following actions except: A. Cornification of vaginal epithelium B. Proliferation of endometrium C. Maturation of graafian follicle D. Anabolism
Last Answer : C. Maturation of graafian follicle
Description : The following is true about actions of ethylalcohol: A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold B. It lowers pain threshold C. It increases confidence and reduces number of errors D. It increases heat production and helps to keep warm in cold weather
Last Answer : A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold
Description : The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the ... without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions
Last Answer : D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions
Description : The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is (A) ureide (B) imidazolidinone (C) dihydropyrimidine (D) tetrahydropyrimidine
Last Answer : (A) ureide
Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues
Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration
Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis
Last Answer : C. Histamine release
Description : Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes
Last Answer : A. They have a steeper dose response curve
Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects
Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects
Description : Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide: A. It irritates the respiratory mucosa B. It has poor analgesic action C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics D. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching
Last Answer : C. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics
Description : Which of the following is seen at low (analgesic) doses of aspirin: A. Respiratory stimulation B. Increased occult blood loss in stools C. Increased cardiac output D. Hyperglycaemia
Last Answer : B. Increased occult blood loss in stools
Description : Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant
Last Answer : D. Antidepressant
Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit
Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence
Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine
Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating
Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action
Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
Description : The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone
Last Answer : A. Baclofen
Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure
Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia
Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert
Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property
Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Description : Select the anticonvulsant drug that acts as a GABAtransaminase inhibitor: A. Gabapentin B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrig
Last Answer : B. Vigabatrin
Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Phenytoin appears to derive its anticonvulsant action from: A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges B. Selective inhibition of epileptic focus C. Selective inhibition T-type Ca2+ current in brain cells D. Selective enhancement of inhibitory transmission in the brain
Last Answer : A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges
Description : The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation
Last Answer : D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation
Description : The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is: A. Pentobarbitone B. Phenobarbitone C. Butabarbitone D. Thiopentone
Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone
Description : Which of the following is not a CNS depressant but increases the tendency to fall asleep at night: A. Pyridoxine B. Diphenhydramine C. Melatonin D. Ethanol
Last Answer : C. Melatonin
Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity
Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses
Description : Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia
Last Answer : C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression
Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit
Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation
Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm
Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events
Description : The clinically used local anaesthetics have the following common features except: A. They are amphiphilic weak bases B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients C. In their ... needed D. They are safer than general anaesthetics in patients with respiratory and cardiovascular disease
Last Answer : B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients
Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects
Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol
Description : Metabolic effects that generally attend antiinflammatory doses of aspirin include the following except: A. Increased CO2 production B. Hepatic glycogen depletion C. Metabolic acidosis D. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
Last Answer : C. Metabolic acidosis
Description : Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis
Last Answer : B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
Description : Actions of adenosine include the following except: A. Depression of A-V node B. Coronary vasodilatation C. Bronchodilatation D. Fall in BP
Last Answer : C. Bronchodilatation
Description : Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction
Last Answer : B. Cardiac depression
Description : Actions of morphine include the following except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Miosis C. Antiemetic D. Postural hypotensio
Last Answer : C. Antiemetic
Description : Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold
Last Answer : A. Euphoria
Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects
Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect
Description : Actions of chlorpromazine include the following except: A. Indifference to external stimuli B. Postural hypotension C. Hypoprolactinemia D. Hypothermia in cold surroundings
Last Answer : C. Hypoprolactinemia
Description : Actions of oxytocin include the following except: A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased water reabsorption in renal collecting ducts C. Contraction of mammary myoepithelium D. Release of prostaglandins from endometrium
Last Answer : A. Vasoconstriction
Description : Actions of progesterone include the following except: A. Rise in body temperature B. Endometrial proliferation C. Proliferation of acini in mammary gland D. Suppression of cell mediated immunity
Last Answer : B. Endometrial proliferatio
Description : In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrate produces the following actions except: A. Hot flushes B. Ovulation C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion D. Polycystic ovaries
Last Answer : C. Decreased FSH and LH secretion
Description : Metabolic actions of estrogens tend to cause the following except: A. Anabolism B. Impaired glucose tolerance C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol D. Salt and water retention
Last Answer : C. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol
Description : Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone by the enzyme 5α-reductase is required for the following actions except: A. Formation of male external genitalia in the foetus B. Prostatic hypertrophy in elderly males C. Pubertal changes in the male adolescent D. Spermatogenesis
Last Answer : D. Spermatogenesis
Description : Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar leve
Last Answer : C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level