Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert
Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property
Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone
Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline
Description : Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect
Last Answer : A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy
Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction: A. Muscle dystonia caused by triflupromazine B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone C. Precipitation of asthma by morphine D. Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin
Last Answer : B. Insomnia after taking pentobarbitone
Description : Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain: A. Chlorpromazine B. Triflupromazine C. Haloperidol D. Olanzapine
Last Answer : C. Haloperido
Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia
Description : Residual CNS depression is least marked after the use of the following anaesthetic: A. Diazepam B. Thiopentone sodium C. Lorazepam D. Propofo
Last Answer : D. Propofol
Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium
Description : Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of the following anaesthetic: A. Ketamine B. Thiopentone sodium C. Halothane D. Ether
Last Answer : D. Ether
Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine
Last Answer : D. Ketamine
Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure
Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia
Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc
Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action
Description : Select the anticonvulsant drug that acts as a GABAtransaminase inhibitor: A. Gabapentin B. Vigabatrin C. Lamotrig
Last Answer : B. Vigabatrin
Description : Phenytoin appears to derive its anticonvulsant action from: A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges B. Selective inhibition of epileptic focus C. Selective inhibition T-type Ca2+ current in brain cells D. Selective enhancement of inhibitory transmission in the brain
Last Answer : A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges
Description : The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation
Last Answer : D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation
Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin
Last Answer : B. Zolpidem
Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil
Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones
Description : Barbiturates exert the following actions except: A. Anticonvulsant B. Analgesic C. Antianxiety D. Respiratory depressant
Last Answer : B. Analgesic
Description : The following is true about actions of ethylalcohol: A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold B. It lowers pain threshold C. It increases confidence and reduces number of errors D. It increases heat production and helps to keep warm in cold weather
Last Answer : A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold
Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrolable behaviour and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug ... control of his symptoms: A. Lithium carbonate B. Phenobarbitone C. Haloperidol D. Valproic acid
Last Answer : C. Haloperidol
Description : The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam
Last Answer : A. Intravenous diazepam
Description : The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate
Last Answer : C. Rectal diazepam
Description : The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone
Last Answer : A. Ethosuximide
Description : Select the antiepileptic drug that is effective in manicdepressive illness as well: A. Ethosuccimide B. Primidone C. Phenobarbitone D. Carbamazepine
Last Answer : D. Carbamazepine
Description : The following antiepileptic drug is most likely to impair learning and memory, and produce behavioral abnormalities in children: A. Valproic acid B. Phenobarbitone C. Phenytoin D. Ethosuximide
Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone
Description : The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone
Last Answer : A. Baclofen
Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution
Last Answer : B. Renal excretion
Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive
Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol
Description : What is true of tolerance occurring in regular opium abusers: A. Tolerance develops to all actions of morphine B. No tolerance occurs to euphoric and sedative actions of morphine C. No ... to constipating and miotic actions of morphine D. Lethal dose of morphine is not significantly increased
Last Answer : C. No tolerance occurs to constipating and miotic actions of morphine
Description : The following statement about lithium is not correct: A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals B. It controls mania, but takes 1-2 weeks to produce the effect C. ... recurrent unipolar depression D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression
Last Answer : A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential
Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm
Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response
Description : Tolerance is generally not acquired to: A. Antisecretory action of atropine B. Sedative action of chlorpromazine C. Emetic action of levodopa D. Vasodilator action of nitrates
Last Answer : A. Antisecretory action of atropine
Description : Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)
Last Answer : C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone)
Description : Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except: A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria C. Potential to prolong QTc interval D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia
Last Answer : B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria
Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI); which drugs are contra indicated: I. Barbiturate II. Local anaesthetic III. Pethidine IV. Acetyl salicylic acid A. All of the above B. None of the above C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV
Last Answer : C. I, II and III
Description : A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation, watering from nose and eyes. His pulse ... likely type of poisoning: A. Belladonna B. Barbiturate C. Anticholinesterase D. Dicophane (DDT
Last Answer : C. Anticholinesterase
Description : A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation, watering from nose and eyes. His pulse ... likely type of poisoning: A. Belladonna B. Barbiturate C. Anticholinesterase D. Dicophane (DDT)
Description : The presumptive test for semen is (a). Acid phosphatase test (b). Sodium alpha naphthyl test (c). Napthanil diazo test (d). Barbiturate test
Last Answer : Ans: (a). Acid phosphatase test
Description : Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine
Last Answer : C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine
Description : The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling
Last Answer : B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine
Description : Select the corticosteroid with the lowest oral: parenteral activity ratio: A. Prednisolone B. Methyl prednisolone C. Hydrocortisone D. Dexamethasone
Last Answer : C. Hydrocortisone