The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone

The following drugs exert their action through the
GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except:
A. Baclofen
B. Zolpidem
C. Bicuculline
D. Phenobarbitone
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Baclofen
by

Related questions

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiazepine receptor C. Increase the frequency of chloride channel opening without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Description : The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the ... without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Last Answer : D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Description : The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Last Answer : C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline

Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin

Last Answer : B. Zolpidem

The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Description : The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Last Answer : D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Description : elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Last Answer : C. Buspirone

The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property

Study of drug-receptor interaction has now shown that: A. Maximal response occurs only when all receptors are occupied by the drug B. Drugs exert an ‘all or none’ action on a receptor C. Receptor and drugs acting on it have rigid complementary ‘lock and key’ structural features D. Properties of ‘affinity’ and ‘intrinsic activity’ are independently variable

Description : Study of drug-receptor interaction has now shown that: A. Maximal response occurs only when all receptors are occupied by the drug B. Drugs exert an all or none' action on a ... lock and key' structural features D. Properties of affinity' and intrinsic activity' are independently variable

Last Answer : D. Properties of ‘affinity’ and ‘intrinsic activity’ are independently variable

Study of drug-receptor interaction has now shown that: A. Maximal response occurs only when all receptors are occupied by the drug B. Drugs exert an ‘all or none’ action on a receptor C. Receptor and drugs acting on it have rigid complementary ‘lock and key’ structural features D. Properties of ‘affinity’ and ‘intrinsic activity’ are independently variable

Description : Study of drug-receptor interaction has now shown that: A. Maximal response occurs only when all receptors are occupied by the drug B. Drugs exert an all or none' action on a ... lock and key' structural features D. Properties of affinity' and intrinsic activity' are independently variable

Last Answer : D. Properties of ‘affinity’ and ‘intrinsic activity’ are independently variable

Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use

ntithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Description : ntithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Last Answer : A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis

Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Description : Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Last Answer : . Inhibit thyroxine synthesis

The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Description : The following receptor has an intrinsic ion channel: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Histamine H2 receptor C. Adrenergic alfa receptor D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Last Answer : D. GABA-benzodiazepine receptor

Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid

Description : Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively: A. Adenosine B. Flumazenil C. Bicuculline D. Valproic acid

Last Answer : C. Bicuculline

Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation C. They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble

Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Description : Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Last Answer : A. Very long duration of action

Gabapentin acts: A. As GABAA agonist B. As precursor of GABA C. By enhancing GABA release D. By GABA independent mechanism

Description : Gabapentin acts: A. As GABAA agonist B. As precursor of GABA C. By enhancing GABA release D. By GABA independent mechanism

Last Answer : C. By enhancing GABA release

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Last Answer : B. Renal excretion

Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Description : Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Last Answer : C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

Select the muscle relaxant that is used to control spasticity associated with upper motor neurone paralysis: A. Vecuronium B. Succinylcholine C. Chlorzoxazone D. Baclofen

Description : Select the muscle relaxant that is used to control spasticity associated with upper motor neurone paralysis: A. Vecuronium B. Succinylcholine C. Chlorzoxazone D. Baclofen

Last Answer : D. Baclofen

The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Description : The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Last Answer : B. Doxapram

The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Description : The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade

Aminoglycoside antibiotics exert the following action(s) on sensitive bacteria: A. Induce synthesis of defective proteins B. Make bacterial cell membrane more leaky C. Augment their own carrier mediated entry into the bacteria D. All of the above

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics exert the following action(s) on sensitive bacteria: A. Induce synthesis of defective proteins B. Make bacterial cell membrane more leaky C. Augment their own carrier mediated entry into the bacteria D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Barbiturates exert the following actions except: A. Anticonvulsant B. Analgesic C. Antianxiety D. Respiratory depressant

Description : Barbiturates exert the following actions except: A. Anticonvulsant B. Analgesic C. Antianxiety D. Respiratory depressant

Last Answer : B. Analgesic

Estrogens exert the following actions except: A. Cornification of vaginal epithelium B. Proliferation of endometrium C. Maturation of graafian follicle D. Anabolism

Description : Estrogens exert the following actions except: A. Cornification of vaginal epithelium B. Proliferation of endometrium C. Maturation of graafian follicle D. Anabolism

Last Answer : C. Maturation of graafian follicle

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic action by inducing: A. Breakage of DNA strand B. Cross linking of DNA strands C. Abnormal pairing of purine and pyrimidine bases D. All of the above

Description : Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic action by inducing: A. Breakage of DNA strand B. Cross linking of DNA strands C. Abnormal pairing of purine and pyrimidine bases D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis C. They bind to 50S ribosomes and interfere with translocation of the growing peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

Cyclic nucleotides exert the following action on salt transport across intestinal mucosal cells: A. Both cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP enhance Cland HCO3 – secretion B. Cyclic AMP enhances but cyclic GMP inhibits Cl– and HCO3 – secretion C. Cyclic AMP inhibits but cyclic GMP enhances Na+ and Cl– reabsorption D. Both cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP enhance Na+ and Cl– reabsorption

Description : Cyclic nucleotides exert the following action on salt transport across intestinal mucosal cells: A. Both cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP enhance Cland HCO3 - secretion B. Cyclic AMP enhances but cyclic GMP ... Cl- reabsorption D. Both cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP enhance Na+ and Cl- reabsorption

Last Answer : A. Both cyclic AMP and cyclic GMP enhance Cland HCO3 – secreti

Irrespective of the type, all laxatives exert the following action: A. Increase the content of solids in the faeces B. Increase the water content of faeces C. Reduce absorption of nutrients D. Increase intestinal motility

Description : Irrespective of the type, all laxatives exert the following action: A. Increase the content of solids in the faeces B. Increase the water content of faeces C. Reduce absorption of nutrients D. Increase intestinal motility

Last Answer : B. Increase the water content of faeces

The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the ‘on-off ’ effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian patients C. It retards the progression of Parkinson's disease D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Corticosteroids exert antiinflammatory action by inhibiting the following enzyme: A. Cyclooxygenase B. Lipoxygenase C. Phospholipase-A D. Phosphodiesterase

Description : Corticosteroids exert antiinflammatory action by inhibiting the following enzyme: A. Cyclooxygenase B. Lipoxygenase C. Phospholipase-A D. Phosphodiesterase

Last Answer : C. Phospholipase-A

Methylxanthines exert the following action(s) at cellular/molecular level: A. Intracellular release of Ca2+ B. Antagonism of adenosine C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase D. All of the above

Description : Methylxanthines exert the following action(s) at cellular/molecular level: A. Intracellular release of Ca2+ B. Antagonism of adenosine C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors

Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach

The following class(es) of drugs are clinically beneficial in bronchial asthma: A. Histamine H1 receptor antagonists B. Platelet activating factor (PAF) antagonists C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists D. All of the above

Description : The following class(es) of drugs are clinically beneficial in bronchial asthma: A. Histamine H1 receptor antagonists B. Platelet activating factor (PAF) antagonists C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists

The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor only from the intraneuronal face of the Na+ channel C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Description : The following is not true of local anaesthetics: A. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane B. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor ... the resting state D. The local anaesthetic combines with its receptor in the ionized cationic form

Last Answer : C. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na+ channel is in the resting state

The insulin receptor is a: A. Ion channel regulating receptor B. Tyrosine protein kinase receptor C. G-protein coupled receptor D. None of the above

Description : The insulin receptor is a: A. Ion channel regulating receptor B. Tyrosine protein kinase receptor C. G-protein coupled receptor D. None of the above

Last Answer : B. Tyrosine protein kinase receptor

The following receptor type has 7 helical membrane spanning amino acid segments with 3 extracellular and 3 intracellular loops: A. Tyrosine protein kinase receptor B. Gene expression regulating receptor C. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptor D. G protein coupled receptor

Description : Receptors perform the following function/functions: A. Ligand recognition B. Signal transduction C. Both ligand recognition and signal transduction D. Disposal of agonists and antagonists

Last Answer : D. Disposal of agonists and antagonists

Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Description : Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Last Answer : D. Antiepileptic

Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances on discontinuation C. It does not act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA

The following is a very potent and short acting benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some cases: A. Flurazepam B. Nitrazepam C. Temazepam D. Triazolam

Description : The following is a very potent and short acting benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some cases: A. Flurazepam B. Nitrazepam C. Temazepam D. Triazolam

Last Answer : D. Triazolam

The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrolable behaviour and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug for rapid control of his symptoms: A. Lithium carbonate B. Phenobarbitone C. Haloperidol D. Valproic acid

Description : A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrolable behaviour and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug ... control of his symptoms: A. Lithium carbonate B. Phenobarbitone C. Haloperidol D. Valproic acid

Last Answer : C. Haloperidol

The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam

Description : The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam

Last Answer : A. Intravenous diazepam