Description : Select the antiepileptic drug that in addition is a preferred treatment for post herpetic neuralgia and pain due to diabetic neuropathy: A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Lamotrigine D. Primidone
Last Answer : B. Gabapentin
Description : Gabapentin acts: A. As GABAA agonist B. As precursor of GABA C. By enhancing GABA release D. By GABA independent mechanism
Last Answer : C. By enhancing GABA release
Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever
Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin
Last Answer : B. Zolpidem
Description : Select the drug which is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump: A. Carbenoxolone sodium B. Sucralfate C. Famotidine D. Lansoprazole
Last Answer : D. Lansoprazole
Description : Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid
Last Answer : A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil
Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones
Description : Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme: A. Zalcitabine B. Efavirenz C. Stavudine D. Nelfinavi
Last Answer : D. Nelfinavir
Description : Select the drug that is fungicidal and acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme: A. Ketoconazole B. Terbinafine C. Tolnaftate D. Hamycin
Last Answer : B. Terbinafine
Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine
Last Answer : B. Vincristine
Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine
Last Answer : A. Sertraline
Description : The following drug of abuse is a hallucinogen: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Heroin D. Methaqualone (p. 403) 31.1 Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline
Last Answer : B. Cannabis
Description : Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin
Last Answer : A. Nimesulide
Description : The following nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug is a preferential cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor: A. Tenoxicam B. Meloxicam C. Diclofenac sod. D. Ketoprofen
Last Answer : B. Meloxicam
Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure
Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia
Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert
Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property
Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc
Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action
Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Phenytoin appears to derive its anticonvulsant action from: A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges B. Selective inhibition of epileptic focus C. Selective inhibition T-type Ca2+ current in brain cells D. Selective enhancement of inhibitory transmission in the brain
Last Answer : A. Selective inhibition of high frequency neuronal discharges
Description : The most probable mechanism of anticonvulsant action of phenytoin is: A. Facilitation of GABAergic inhibitory transmission B. Hyperpolarization of neurones C. Interaction with Ca2+ channels to promote Ca2+ influx D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation
Last Answer : D. Prolongation of voltage sensitive neuronal Na+ channel inactivation
Description : The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is: A. Pentobarbitone B. Phenobarbitone C. Butabarbitone D. Thiopentone
Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone
Description : Barbiturates exert the following actions except: A. Anticonvulsant B. Analgesic C. Antianxiety D. Respiratory depressant
Last Answer : B. Analgesic
Description : The following is true about actions of ethylalcohol: A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold B. It lowers pain threshold C. It increases confidence and reduces number of errors D. It increases heat production and helps to keep warm in cold weather
Last Answer : A. It exerts anticonvulsant action followed by lowering of seizure threshold
Description : Select the correct statement abut donepezil: A. It is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in glaucoma B. It is a catechol-'O'-methyl transferase inhibitor used as adjuvant in ... affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease D. It is a synthetic cannabinoid with antiemetic property
Last Answer : C. It is a cerebroselective anticholinesterase that affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's diseas
Description : The following cytotoxic drug acts by inhibiting depolymerization of tubulin and thus producing abnormal arrays of microtubules: A. Paclitaxel B. Vinblastine C. Etoposide D. Mitoxantrone (p. 774) 60.9 C 60.10 B 60.11 D 60.12 A Ai
Last Answer : A. Paclitaxel
Description : Which anthelmintic drug acts through a specific glutamate gated Cl– ion channel found only in nematodes: A. Ivermectin B. Niclosamide C. Pyrantel pamoate D. Praziquantel
Last Answer : A. Ivermectin
Description : As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap
Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it
Description : Choose the correct statement about trimetazidine: A. It is a novel calcium channel blocker B. It improves tissue perfusion by modifying rheological property of blood C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : C. It is an antianginal drug which acts by nonhaemodynamic mechanisms
Description : The antiparkinsonian drug which acts by inhibiting the degradation of dopamine in the brain is: A. Carbidopa B. Amantadine C. Selegiline D. Bromocriptine
Last Answer : C. Selegiline
Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures
Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug
Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes
Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Description : Select the opioid analgesic which acts primarily through κ (kappa) opioid receptor: A. Pentazocine B. Methadone C. Buprenorphine D. Pethidine
Last Answer : A. Pentazocine
Description : Select the analgesic which acts through opioid as well as additional spinal monoaminergic mechanisms: A. Tramadol B. Ethoheptazine C. Dextropropoxyphene D. Alfentanil
Last Answer : A. Tramado
Description : Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine
Last Answer : B. Cyclosporine
Description : Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate
Last Answer : D. 5-Fluorouracil
Description : Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton
Last Answer : B. Ivermectin
Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : D. Furazolidone
Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole
Last Answer : C. Metronidazole
Description : Select the correct statement about primaquine: A. It has no role in falciparum malaria B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria C. It is combined with chloroquine to treat resistant P. falciparum infection D. It is used to prevent recrudescence of falciparum malaria
Last Answer : B. It is used as a gametocidal drug in falciparum malaria
Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine
Last Answer : B. Doxycycline
Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine
Last Answer : C. Primaquine
Description : Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine
Last Answer : B. Nevirapine
Description : Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus: A. Lamivudine B. Indinavir C. Didanosine D. Efavirenz
Last Answer : A. Lamivudine
Description : Select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral route: A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole C. Griseofulvin D. Tolnaftate
Last Answer : C. Griseofulvin
Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : A. Erythromycin
Description : Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin
Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid
Description : Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases: A. Sulfadiazine B. Silver sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole
Last Answer : B. Silver sulfadiazine
Description : Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim
Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin