Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes

Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the
following aspects except:
A. They have a steeper dose response curve
B. They have higher therapeutic index
C. They have lower abuse liability
D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. They have a steeper dose response curve
by

Related questions

The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiazepine receptor C. Increase the frequency of chloride channel opening without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Description : The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the ... without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Last Answer : D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Description : The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Last Answer : B. It is a rectangular hyperbola

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Description : Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Last Answer : C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till haemodynamic compensation is restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till ... restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Last Answer : A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term

Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine

Description : Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine

Last Answer : A. Smokers

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

_____ is when an antimicrobial drug should harm the infectious agent but not the host. a. Selective toxicity b. Toxic dose c. Therapeutic dose d. Chemotherapeutic index

Description : _____ is when an antimicrobial drug should harm the infectious agent but not the host. a. Selective toxicity b. Toxic dose c. Therapeutic dose d. Chemotherapeutic index

Last Answer : a. Selective toxicity

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability

Last Answer : A. Safety

The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence

The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action

Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Description : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Last Answer : A. Takes about one week to develop

Barbiturates exert the following actions except: A. Anticonvulsant B. Analgesic C. Antianxiety D. Respiratory depressant

Description : Barbiturates exert the following actions except: A. Anticonvulsant B. Analgesic C. Antianxiety D. Respiratory depressant

Last Answer : B. Analgesic

Which of the following types of drug metabolizing enzymes are inducible: A. Microsomal enzymes B. Nonmicrosomal enzymes C. Both microsomal and nonmicrosomal enzymes D. Mitochondrial enzymes

Description : Which of the following types of drug metabolizing enzymes are inducible: A. Microsomal enzymes B. Nonmicrosomal enzymes C. Both microsomal and nonmicrosomal enzymes D. Mitochondrial enzymes

Last Answer : A. Microsomal enzymes

Which of the following types of drug metabolizing enzymes are inducible: A. Microsomal enzymes B. Nonmicrosomal enzymes C. Both microsomal and nonmicrosomal enzymes D. Mitochondrial enzymes

Description : Which of the following types of drug metabolizing enzymes are inducible: A. Microsomal enzymes B. Nonmicrosomal enzymes C. Both microsomal and nonmicrosomal enzymes D. Mitochondrial enzymes

Last Answer : A. Microsomal enzymes

The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action

You are treating a patient of deep vein thrombosis with warfarin. What value of International normalized ratio (INR) will you attempt by adjusting dose of the anticoagulant for an adequate therapeutic effect: A. 1.2 – 1.5 B. 1.3 – 1.7 C. 1.5 – 2.0 D. 2.0 – 3.0

Description : You are treating a patient of deep vein thrombosis with warfarin. What value of International normalized ratio (INR) will you attempt by adjusting dose of the anticoagulant for an adequate therapeutic effect: A. 1.2 – 1.5 B. 1.3 – 1.7 C. 1.5 – 2.0 D. 2.0 – 3.0

Last Answer : D. 2.0 – 3.0

n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Description : n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Last Answer : C. Tone of ventricular fibres

Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response

Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response

Widespread and prolonged use of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics: A. Induce mutation in the bacteria B. Promote conjugation among bacteria C. Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially D. All of the above

Description : Widespread and prolonged use of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics: A. Induce mutation in the bacteria B. Promote conjugation among bacteria C. Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially

The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Description : The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Last Answer : B. Doxapram

Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index: A. Streptomycin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index: A. Streptomycin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : C. Cephalexin

he minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its: A. Potency B. Therapeutic index C. Diffusibility D. Oil: water partition coefficient

Description : he minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its: A. Potency B. Therapeutic index C. Diffusibility D. Oil: water partition coefficient

Last Answer : A. Potency

The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman

Description : The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman

Last Answer : C. Lower than that for contraception

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps

Description : Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps

Last Answer : C. To induce abortion

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Description : The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Description : The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Last Answer : B. It is a rectangular hyperbola

Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances on discontinuation C. It does not act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA

Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant actions C. The BZD receptor is homogeneous at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil

Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones

Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage

Description : Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage

Last Answer : A. Stage II

Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Description : Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Last Answer : C. Nitrofurantoin