Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use
Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA
Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action
Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use
Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil
Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones
Description : The general principles in the use of hypnotics include the following except: A. A hypnotic may be used intermittently for upto 2-3 weeks in short-term insomnia due to emotional stress B ... sleep apnoea D. A hypnotic with slow elimination is preferred in patients with early morning awakening
Last Answer : B. In patients with chronic insomnia a hypnotic should be used regularl
Description : Effect of alcohol on sleep has the following feature: A. It is a dependable hypnotic but is not prescribed because of abuse potential B. It consistently improves the quality of sleep C. It can disorganise sleep architecture D. It suppresses sleep apnoea
Last Answer : C. It can disorganise sleep architecture
Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache
Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours
Description : The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they: A. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex B. Act as inverse agonists at the ... without affecting its life time D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions
Last Answer : D. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions
Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit
Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence
Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines
Description : Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes
Last Answer : A. They have a steeper dose response curve
Description : Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic
Last Answer : D. Antiepileptic
Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin
Last Answer : B. Zolpidem
Description : The following is a very potent and short acting benzodiazepine whose use as hypnotic has been noted to cause psychiatric disturbances in some cases: A. Flurazepam B. Nitrazepam C. Temazepam D. Triazolam
Last Answer : D. Triazolam
Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination
Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution
Description : Hypnotic dose of diazepam produces the following action: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Hyperalgesia D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion
Last Answer : D. Decreased nocturnal gastric secretion
Description : In Electronic cash payment (i) a customer withdraws “coins” in various denominations signed by the bank (ii)the bank has a database of issued coins (iii) the bank has a database of spent coins (iv) the bank cannot trace a customer a. i, ii b. i, ii, iii c. i, ii, iii, iv d. ii, iii, iv
Last Answer : b. i, ii, iii
Description : No surgical operation should be performed during the following stage of anaesthesia: A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III, plane 1 D. Stage III, plane 3
Last Answer : B. Stage II
Description : If a patient being anaesthetised with ether is unconscious, has regular respiration, blood pressure and heart rate are normal, corneal reflex is present and eyeballs are roving, the patient is in: A. Stage II B. Stage III plane 1 C. Stage III plane 2 D. Stage III plane 3
Last Answer : B. Stage III plane 1
Description : In regard to Benzodiazepines: a. Increases R.E.M. sleep. b. Has a hangover effects because of active metabolism. c. Includes carbamazepine. d. Can be used safely on children as it achieves reliable effects.
Last Answer : b. Has a hangover effects because of active metabolism.
Description : In regard to Benzodiazepines: A. Increases R.E.M. sleep B. Has a hangover effects because of active metabolism C. Includes carbamazepine D. Can be used safely on children as it achieves reliable effects
Last Answer : B. Has a hangover effects because of active metabolism
Description : How long does REM sleep last?
Last Answer : answer:REM is the last stage of the sleep cycle, and usually lasts anywhere from 60–90 minutes in humans. In animals, REM may occur much faster than humans (15 minutes into sleep for dogs), and they experience varying lengths of the stage as well. I’m not sure about cats though..
Description : Do dogs become paralyzed during REM sleep?
Last Answer : Why was this particular dog necessarily in REM sleep? i thought you always did the tags them that way? ;-p
Description : What is called when you dream and your not in REM sleep?
Last Answer : Lucid dreaming
Last Answer : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings
Description : Study the given figure below and answer the question that follow important-questions-for-class-12-biology-cbse-fertilisation-pregnancy-and-embryonic-development-t-33-3 (i)Name the stage of human embryo the ... implantation in the uterus. (iv)Where are the stem cells located in this embryo? -Biology
Last Answer : (i)The stage is blastocyst. (ii) A—Trophoblast. It helps in attachment to endometrium during implantation and provides nourishment to developing embryo. (iii) Inner cell mass acts as precursor to embryo ... into ectoderm and endoderm. (iv) Stem cells are located in inner cell mass of embryo.
Description : An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. 1,000; stage II b. 700; stage I c. 400; stage III d. 400; stage IV
Last Answer : a. 1,000; stage II
Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.
Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.
Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.
Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.
Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.
Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.
Description : Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests a) i-d , ii ... i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Last Answer : d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Description : In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible? (a) potential opposition or incompatibility (Stage I) ; (b) cognition and personalization (Stage II) ; (c) intentions (Stage III) ; (d) behavior (Stage IV)
Last Answer : ; (d) behavior (Stage IV)
Description : Conflict-handling behaviors are initiated in _____, in which there is a dynamic process of interaction. (a) Stage II of the conflict process ; (b) Stage III of the conflict process (c) Stage IV of the conflict process ; (d) Stage V of the conflict process
Last Answer : (b) Stage III of the conflict process
Description : In which stage are conflict issues defined? (a) Stage I, Potential opposition ; (b) Stage II, Cognition and personalization (c) Stage III, Intuitions ; (d) Stage IV, Behavior
Last Answer : (b) Stage II, Cognition and personalization
Description : Give scientific reasons (in not more than four lines each) for the following: (i) Meat takes longer to cook on the mountains (ii) Water remains cool in earthen pitchers (iii) Ice and salt ... to sleep under trees during the night. (v) Greenhouse operators paint their glass roofs white in summer.
Last Answer : (i) Meat takes longer to cook on the mountains: The atmospheric pressure decreases as the altitude increases. The boiling point of water is 100 c at standard atmospheric pressure. At the mountains this ... of light to a maximum. And therefore white colour is painted on the roofs in the summer.
Description : Gemfibrozil has the following features except: A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides B. It tends to raise plasma HDL-cholesterol level C. It is a first ... type III, type IV and type V hyperlipoproteinemia D. It reduces the incidence of myocardial infarctio
Last Answer : A. It lowers plasma LDL cholesterol to a greater extent than triglycerides
Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief
Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief
Description : The amplitude of a wave is ______. (i) the distance the wave moves in one second (ii). the distance the wave moves in one time period of the wave (iii) the maximum distance moved by the medium particles on either side of the mean position* (iv) the distance equal to one wave length
Last Answer : iii) the maximum distance moved by the medium particles on either side of the mean position*
Description : The frequency of a wave travelling at a speed of 500 ms-1 is 25 Hz. Its time period will be ______. (i) 20 s (ii) 0.05 s (iii) 25 s (iv) 0.04 s
Last Answer : (iv) 0.04 s
Description : Define the terms related to a.c. supply with waveform : i) Instantaneous value ii) Time period iii) Amplitude iv) Phase difference.
Last Answer : i) Instantaneous value: The instantaneous value is the value of an alternating quantity (it may ac voltage or ac current or ac power) at a particular instant of time in the cycle . OR ... difference: Phase difference is the difference in phase angle between two sinusoids or phasors.
Description : Define : i) Amplitude ii) Frequency iii) Time period iv) Angular velocity related to a.c.
Last Answer : i) Frequency: It is the number of cycles completed by an alternating quantity in one second. ii) Time Period: The time (in sec) required by an alternating quantity to complete its one cycle is known as time period.
Description : Which of the following period is known as plan holiday? (i) 1969 to 1974 (ii) 1966 to 1969 (iii) 1965 to 1968 (iv) 1961 to 1966
Last Answer : (ii) 1966 to 1969
Description : For rolling mark 60 kg/Sail/X/2010 the first testing in the field after initial testing of rails in rail manufacturing plant, will be done. (i) After test free period of 25%. (ii) After passage of every 40 ... period.* (iii) After passage of 200 GMT. (iv) On the basis of annual GMT of the section.
Last Answer : (ii) After passage of every 40 GMT traffic during test free period.*
Description : Indicate the enzyme(s) inhibited by fluoroquinolones: A. Both 'A' and 'C' B. Topoisomerase II C. Topoisomerase IV D. DNA gyrase
Last Answer : D. DNA gyrase
Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period
Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant
Description : The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is (i) To increase shrinkage (ii) To decrease shrinkage (iii) To increase setting time (iv) To decrease setting time The correct answer is (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
Last Answer : (B) (i) and (iv)
Description : Is it okay to mix SNRI's and Benzodiazepine's with Tylenol or Advil?
Last Answer : That’s really a question you should ask your doctor, who I’m assuming prescribed both the SNRIs and the benzodiazepines. If they were prescribed by different doctors, you might want to inform both of them what you are taking. Then ask how the over the counter stuff fits in or affects the balance.
Description : Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III
Last Answer : B. Bradykinin
Description : Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle
Last Answer : A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex
Description : Digitalis induced increase in refractory period of myocardial fibres is most consistent and pronounced in the: A. Atria B. Ventricles C. A-V node D. Purkinje fibres
Last Answer : C. A-V node
Description : Read the following points `:-` (i) Increase GFR (ii) Increase B.P. (iii) Decreases blood volume (iv) Increases aldosterone secretion (v) Vasoconstrict
Last Answer : Read the following points `:-` (i) Increase GFR (ii) Increase B.P. (iii) Decreases blood volume (iv) ... II ? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five