Description : Persistent dry cough may occur as a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Enalapril B. Atenolol C. Diltiazem D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : A. Enalapril
Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Indications of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Attention deficit-hyperactive disorder in children B. Mania C. Prophylaxis of migraine D. Panic disorder
Last Answer : B. Mania
Description : The tricyclic antidepressants are also effective in the following psychiatric disorders except: A. Schizophrenia B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Bulimia D. Phobic states
Last Answer : A. Schizophreni
Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy
Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response
Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability
Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone
Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone
Description : Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by: A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen B. Altering gut motility C. Altering gut flora D. Damaging gut mucosa
Last Answer : B. Altering gut motility
Description : A drug that decreases blood pressure and has analgesic and spasmolytic effects when given intrathecally is (a) Atenolol (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Nitroprusside (e) Prazosin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Amiodarone
Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The following statement about lithium is not correct: A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals B. It controls mania, but takes 1-2 weeks to produce the effect C. ... recurrent unipolar depression D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression
Last Answer : A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril
Last Answer : A. Nifedipine
Description : The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil
Last Answer : B. Nifedipine
Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: A. Isosorbide dinitrate B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate C. Diltiazem D. Dipyridamole
Last Answer : A. Isosorbide dinitrate
Description : Which of the following is a prodrug: A. Hydralazine B. Clonidine C. Captopril D. Enalapril
Last Answer : D. Enalapril
Description : The following drug has been demonstrated to retard progression of left ventricular dysfunction and prolong survival of congestive heart failure patients: A. Digoxin B. Furosemide C. Enalapril D. Amrinone
Last Answer : C. Enalapril
Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : B. Captopril
Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action
Last Answer : D. Lisinopri
Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action
Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension
Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril
Last Answer : A. Clonidine
Description : Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin
Last Answer : B. Hydralazine
Description : The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin
Last Answer : B. Clonidine
Description : Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin
Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect
Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation
Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors
Description : The following drug of abuse is a hallucinogen: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Heroin D. Methaqualone (p. 403) 31.1 Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline
Last Answer : B. Cannabis
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with: A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Dipyridamole C. Propranolol D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Dipyridamole
Description : The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is: A. Verapamil B. Diltiazem C. Flunarizine D. Amlodipine
Last Answer : C. Flunarizine
Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine
Description : Losartan differs from enalapril in the following respect: A. It does not potentiate bradykinin B. It depresses cardiovascular reflexes C. It impairs carbohydrate tolerance D. It does not have fetopathic potential
Last Answer : A. It does not potentiate bradykini
Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : C. Atenolol
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole
Last Answer : A. Propranolol
Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol
Last Answer : A. Pindolol
Description : Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri
Last Answer : C. Clonidine
Description : A. It is a clonidine congener used in spasticity due to stroke or spinal injury B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors C. It inhibits release of excitatory amino-acids in spinal interneurones D. It reduces muscle spasms without producing weaknes
Last Answer : B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors
Description : The following is a selective α2 adrenoceptor antagonist: A. Prazosin B. Phentolamine C. Yohimbine D. Clonidine
Last Answer : C. Yohimbine
Description : The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location
Description : Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension
Last Answer : D. To reduce intraocular tension
Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine
Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate
Description : The following is a selective α 2 adrenoceptor antagonist: A. Prazosin B. Phentolamine C. Yohimbine D. Clonidine
Description : The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response
Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct