Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Indomethacin
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Last Answer : B. Calcium

Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate

Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Last Answer : C. Captopril

Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Last Answer : B. Amiloride

At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide

The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : A. Prazosin

The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide

Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Description : Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Last Answer : B. Bumetanide

Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter B. Na+-Cl– symporter C. Na+-H+ antiporter D. Na+ K+ ATPase

Description : Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter B. Na+-Cl– symporter C. Na+-H+ antiporter D. Na+ K+ ATPase

Last Answer : A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Last Answer : D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Last Answer : B. Renal excretion

Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate

A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion

Description : Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia? (a) Amiloride plus saline infusion (b) Furosemide plus saline infusion (c) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion (d) Mannitol plus saline infusion (e) Spironolactone plus saline infusion

Last Answer : Ans: B

Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide

Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide

Last Answer : Ans: B

Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)

Description : Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)

Last Answer : C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone)

Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)

Description : Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)

Last Answer : C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone)

Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin

Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin

Last Answer : C. Tobramycin

Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β-blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine

Description : Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β-blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine

Last Answer : B. Indomethacin

The following antiinflammatory analgesic has been cleared for pediatric use: A. Indomethacin B. Ibuprofen C. Ketorolac D. Piroxicam

Description : The following antiinflammatory analgesic has been cleared for pediatric use: A. Indomethacin B. Ibuprofen C. Ketorolac D. Piroxicam

Last Answer : B. Ibuprofen

Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin

Description : Which of the following is an efficacious antiinflammatory drug but a relatively weak inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Nimesulide B. Paracetamol C. Ketoprofen D. Indomethacin

Last Answer : A. Nimesulide

Which analgesic-antiinflammatory drug is more appropriate in musculo-skeletal disorder where pain is more prominent than inflammation: A. Ibuprofen B. Piroxicam C. Indomethacin D. Nimesulide

Description : Which analgesic-antiinflammatory drug is more appropriate in musculo-skeletal disorder where pain is more prominent than inflammation: A. Ibuprofen B. Piroxicam C. Indomethacin D. Nimesulide

Last Answer : A. Ibuprofen

The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

Description : The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

Last Answer : B. It is inducible

Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Aspirin B. Phenylbutazone C. Indomethacin D. Piroxicam

Description : Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase: A. Aspirin B. Phenylbutazone C. Indomethacin D. Piroxicam

Last Answer : A. Aspirin

Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β -blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine

Description : Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β -blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine

Last Answer : B. Indomethacin

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide

Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri

Description : Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri

Last Answer : C. Clonidine

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide

Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone

The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle. C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions

A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Description : A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Last Answer : B. Gentamicin

n addition to counteracting potassium loss, triamterene also opposes the following consequence of thiazide/furosemide therapy: A. Hyperuricaemia B. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol C. Magnesium loss D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : n addition to counteracting potassium loss, triamterene also opposes the following consequence of thiazide/furosemide therapy: A. Hyperuricaemia B. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol C. Magnesium loss D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Magnesium loss

The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Description : The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Last Answer : A. Hydroflumethiazide

Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Description : Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Last Answer : C. Cerebral edema

Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Description : Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Last Answer : C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload.

A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is accompanied by: A. Asthma B. Hyperuricaemia C. Diabetes D. Congestive heart failure

Description : Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is accompanied by: A. Asthma B. Hyperuricaemia C. Diabetes D. Congestive heart failure

Last Answer : D. Congestive heart failure

Which of the following drugs can afford both haemodynamic improvement as well as disease modifying benefits in CHF: A. Furosemide B. Milrinone C. Losartan D. Digoxin

Description : Which of the following drugs can afford both haemodynamic improvement as well as disease modifying benefits in CHF: A. Furosemide B. Milrinone C. Losartan D. Digoxin

Last Answer : C. Losartan