Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : D. Ethambutol
Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months
Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months
Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course
Last Answer : B. Initial two months
Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin
Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin
Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : C. Ethambutol
Description : The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : B. Rifampin
Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin
Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine
Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar
Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone
Last Answer : B. Amiloride
Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class
Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately
Description : The following drug increases cyclic-AMP in platelets and inhibits their aggregation without altering levels of thromboxane A2 or prostacyclin: A. Aspirin B. Sulfinpyrazone C. Dipyridamole D. Abciximab
Last Answer : C. Dipyridamole
Description : Sulfinpyrazone has the following action(s): A. Antiplatelet aggregatory B. Uricosuric C. Antiinflammatory D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Description : n addition to counteracting potassium loss, triamterene also opposes the following consequence of thiazide/furosemide therapy: A. Hyperuricaemia B. Rise in plasma LDL-cholesterol C. Magnesium loss D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : C. Magnesium loss
Description : Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is accompanied by: A. Asthma B. Hyperuricaemia C. Diabetes D. Congestive heart failure
Last Answer : D. Congestive heart failure
Description : The ‘neuroleptic syndrome’ produced by chlorpromazine like drugs is characterized by the following except: A. Emotional quietening B. Paucity of movements C. Ataxia D. Indifference to external cues
Last Answer : C. Ataxia
Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients
Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis
Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli
Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response
Description : Which of the following drugs may be effective in the treatment of gouty arthritis by acting by two separate and distinct mechanisms? (a) Allopurinol (b) Probenecid (c) Colchicine (d) Indomethacin (e) Sulfinpyrazone
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month
Last Answer : C. 6 months
Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage
Last Answer : B. Visual defects
Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible
Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children
Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : A. Tetracycline
Description : Which of the following is associated with Hyperuricaemia? 1) is usually due to an excess purine consumption 2) occurs in association with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia 3) in primary gout is inherited in ... with low dose aspirin therapy 5) can be treated with uricosuric drugs even in renal failure
Last Answer : Answers-2 Hyperuricaemia may be due to increased purine intake, urate production or reduced urate clearance, and is most commonly due to the latter. Therefore it can occur in association with enhanced ... . Many of the uricosuric drugs may be detrimental in renal failure and may not be effective.
Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine
Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami
Last Answer : C. Captopril
Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly
Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily
Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride
Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide
Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone
Last Answer : B. Furosemide
Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine
Description : Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri
Last Answer : C. Clonidine
Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : A. Prazosin
Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : C. Atenolol
Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil
Last Answer : D. Sildenafil
Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride
Description : Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin
Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)
Last Answer : C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone)
Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia
Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy
Description : Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate
Last Answer : C. Primaquine
Description : The following are topical antifungal drugs except: A. Ciclopirox olamine B. Tolnaftate C. Crotamiton D. Terbinafine
Last Answer : C. Crotamiton
Description : The following drugs are effective in systemic mycosis except: A. Terbinafine B. Itraconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Fluconazol
Last Answer : A. Terbinafine
Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient
Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders
Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit
Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa
Description : Indications for the use of antiplatelet drugs include the following except: A. Secondary prophylaxis of myocardial infarction B. Unstable angina pectoris C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation D. Stroke prevention in patients with transient ischaemic attacks
Last Answer : C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation