Which of the following processes plays the major
role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone:
A. Biliary excretion
B. Renal excretion
C. Hepatic metabolism
D. Redistribution

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Renal excretion

Related questions

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Description : The most important channel of elimination of digoxin is: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Excretion in bile

Last Answer : A. Glomerular filtration

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Description : The following drugs exert their action through the GABAA-benzodiazepine–receptor Cl¯ channel complex except: A. Baclofen B. Zolpidem C. Bicuculline D. Phenobarbitone

Last Answer : A. Baclofen

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Last Answer : D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Last Answer : B. Calcium

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Description : Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

Description : Pre- hepatic jaundice occurs because of (A) Increased haemolysis (B) Liver damage (C) Biliary obstruction (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer : A

Description : Excretion of conjugated bilirubin from liver cells into biliary canaliculi is defective in (A) Gilbert’s disease (B) Crigler-Najjar syndrome (C) Lucey-Driscoll syndrome (D) Rotor’s syndrome

Last Answer : Answer : D

Description : The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is: A. Increase in total coronary blood flow B. Redistribution of coronary blood flow C. Reduction of cardiac preload D. Reduction of cardiac afterload

Last Answer : C. Reduction of cardiac preload

Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Description : A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrolable behaviour and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug ... control of his symptoms: A. Lithium carbonate B. Phenobarbitone C. Haloperidol D. Valproic acid

Last Answer : C. Haloperidol

Description : The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam

Last Answer : A. Intravenous diazepam

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate

Last Answer : C. Rectal diazepam

Description : The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone

Last Answer : A. Ethosuximide

Description : Select the antiepileptic drug that is effective in manicdepressive illness as well: A. Ethosuccimide B. Primidone C. Phenobarbitone D. Carbamazepine

Last Answer : D. Carbamazepine

Description : The following antiepileptic drug is most likely to impair learning and memory, and produce behavioral abnormalities in children: A. Valproic acid B. Phenobarbitone C. Phenytoin D. Ethosuximide

Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone

Description : The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is: A. Pentobarbitone B. Phenobarbitone C. Butabarbitone D. Thiopentone

Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone

Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination

Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution

Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

Description : A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ ... the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Last Answer : Answer: a, b The most severe complication of sepsis is multiple system organ dysfunction syndrome, which may result in death. The development of organ failure requires changes in the ... should be provided as fat emulsion. If encephalopathy develops, protein load should also be reduced0

Description : Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Description : Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Description : A patient suffers from episodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from: A. Angina pectoris B. Biliary colic C. Esophageal spasm D. Any of the abov

Last Answer : D. Any of the abov

Description : Use of morphine in the following category of patients does not carry any special risk: A. Ischaemic heart disease patients B. Bronchial asthma patients C. Elderly male patients D. Biliary colic patients

Last Answer : A. Ischaemic heart disease patients

Description : Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the ... C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure

Description : Pharmacodynamics considers;  B A. The way in which the drug affects the Body B. The effect of drug in the body and mode of action C. Drug metabolism D. Drug excretion

Last Answer : The effect of drug in the body and mode of action

Description : Pharmacokinetics is: a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs c) The study of mechanisms of drug action d) The study of methods of new drug development

Last Answer : b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

Description : Angiotensin II plays a key role in the following risk factor for ischaemic heart disease: A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Carbohydrate intolerance D. Cardiac arrhythmia

Last Answer : B. Ventricular hypertrophy

Description : The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Last Answer : A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction

Description : The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Last Answer : A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction

Description : Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following? (a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium (b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP ... Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium (e) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager's disease

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Last Answer : C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about ipratropium bromide: A. It preferentially dilates peripheral bronchioles B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol C. As metered dose inhaler it is used for terminating asthma attacks D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol

Description : Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect

Description : Bactericidal action of aminoglycoside antibiotics is due to: A. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis B. Alteration of bacterial cell membrane permeability C. Damage to bacterial cell wall D. Inhibition of bacterial oxidative metabolism

Last Answer : B. Alteration of bacterial cell membrane permeability

Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines