The following factors enhance renin release from the
kidney except:
A. Fall in blood pressure
B. Reduction in blood volume
C. Enhanced sympathetic activity
D. Volume overload

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Volume overload

Related questions

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

Description : Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient

Last Answer : A. Diuretic treated patients

Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

Description : Assertion `:-` An increase in glomerular blood pressure can activate the JG of kidney to release renin. Reason `:-` Angiotensin I is a powerful vaso c

Last Answer : Assertion `:-` An increase in glomerular blood pressure can activate the JG of kidney to release renin. ... . D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% ... injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The neuroendocrine response to shock attempts to achieve restoration of effective blood volume, mobilization of metabolic substrates, and maintenance of central ... . Angiotensin II is an extremely effective vasoconstrictor that further augments sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

Description : The following action of adrenaline is not mediated by β receptors: A. Dilatation of blood vessels B. Dilatation of pupil C. Bronchodilation D. Renin release from kidney

Last Answer : B. Dilatation of pupil

Description : A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of (a) atrial natriuretic factor (b) aldosterone (c) ADH (d) renin.

Last Answer : (a) atrial natriuretic factor

Description : A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of : (1) Atrial natriuretic factor(2) Aldosterone (3) ADH (4) Renin

Last Answer : (1) Atrial natriuretic factor

Description : Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) ... epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Last Answer : (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

Description : Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar leve

Last Answer : C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level

Description : 17.5 Actions of thyroxine include the following except: A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level D. Rise in blood sugar level

Last Answer : D. Rise in blood sugar level

Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

Description : Actions of angiotensin II include: a. increases the release of aldosterone b. reduces renin release from the kidney c. vasodilatation d. promotes microalbuminuria

Last Answer : promotes microalbuminuria

Description : With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct? (a) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate. ( ... for higher yield. (d) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight.

Last Answer : (b) C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum

Description : With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct ? (1) Increasing atmospheric CO 2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO 2 fixation ... for higher yield (4) Light saturation for CO 2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

Last Answer : (2) C 3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C 4 plants have much lower temperature optimum

Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril

Last Answer : A. Clonidine

Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin

Description : The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Last Answer : B. Antivagal action

Description : Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. ... cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Last Answer : B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia

Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

Description : Fall of GFR activate JG cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen into____. Angiotensinogen-II is a powerfull_____. Causes increase in glo

Last Answer : Fall of GFR activate JG cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen into____. ... glomerular blood pressure. Causes increase in_____.

Description : Fall of GFR activate JG cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen into____. Angiotensinogen-II is a powerfull_____. Causes increase in glo

Last Answer : Fall of GFR activate JG cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen into____. ... glomerular blood pressure. Causes increase in_____.

Description : A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates (a) juxtaglomerular cells to release renin (b) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone (c) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline (d) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.

Last Answer : (a) juxtaglomerular cells to release renin

Description : Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: A. Direct vasoconstriction B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla C. Increasing central sympathetic tone D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Methyl dopa decreases blood pressure by (A) Inhibiting the synthesis of catecholamines (B) Antagonising the action of aldosterone (C) Stimulating the release of renin (D) Inhibiting the breakdown of angiotensin

Last Answer : Answer : A

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Description : Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : B. Cardiac depression

Description : Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Last Answer : C. Hypoglycaemia

Description : As a plasma expander, dextran has the following advantages except: A. It exerts oncotic pressure similar to plasma proteins B. It keeps plasma volume expanded for about 24 hours C. It is nonpyrogenic D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Last Answer : D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

Description : Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger's disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss ... affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Last Answer : C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction

Description : Isoxsuprine increases limb blood flow in normal individuals, but is of limited efficacy in Buerger's disease, because in this disease: A. Vasodilator β adrenoceptors are deficient B. There is loss ... affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction D. The drug is not delivered to the affected site

Last Answer : C. Blood flow to the affected limb is reduced by organic obstruction

Description : In the question a part of the sentence is given in BOLD. Alternatives to the BOLD part are given which may improve the construction of the sentence. Select the correct alternative. In addition ... (b) of enhancing their reputation (c) to enhancing their reputation (d) No correction required

Last Answer : (c) to enhancing their reputation

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: A. High renin hypertensives B. Diabetics C. Congestive heart failure patients D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : D. Pregnant women

Description : Under physiological conditions the rate limiting enzyme in the generation of angiotensin II is: A. Renin B. Angiotensin converting enzyme C. Aminopeptidase D. Angiotensinase

Last Answer : A. Renin

Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Last Answer : C. Kidney damage

Description : The following statements are true about imipenem except: A. It is a β-lactam antibiotic, but neither a penicillin nor a cephalosporin B. It is rapidly degraded in the kidney C. It is safe in epileptics D. It is always given in combination with cilastatin

Last Answer : C. It is safe in epileptics