Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause
the following complications except:
A. Tachycardia
B. Fall in blood pressure
C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Pulmonary edema
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Hypoglycaemia
by

Related questions

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive

The adrenergic tocolytic preferred for arresting labour is: A. Ritodrine B. Isoprenaline C. Salbutamol D. Terbutaline

Description : The adrenergic tocolytic preferred for arresting labour is: A. Ritodrine B. Isoprenaline C. Salbutamol D. Terbutaline

Last Answer : A. Ritodrine

Select the drug that has been used to suppress labour: A. Atropine B. Ritodrine C. Prostaglandin E2 D. Progesterone

Description : Select the drug that has been used to suppress labour: A. Atropine B. Ritodrine C. Prostaglandin E2 D. Progesterone

Last Answer : B. Ritodrine

Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Description : Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Last Answer : C. Cerebral edema

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except A) Oliguria B) Increased BP C) Anxiety D) Pulmonary edema

Description : Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except A) Oliguria B) Increased BP C) Anxiety D) Pulmonary edema

Last Answer : Ans: A

Clinical manifestations of right heart failure include each of the following EXCEPT: C A. dependent edema B. Ascites C. Pulmonary edema D. None of these

Description : Clinical manifestations of right heart failure include each of the following EXCEPT: C A. dependent edema B. Ascites C. Pulmonary edema D. None of these

Last Answer : Pulmonary edema

Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Description :  Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Last Answer : B. Hypoglycaemia

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Description : Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Last Answer : D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

17.6 Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Description : 17.6 Complications of over treatment with thyroxine include the following except: A. Auricular fibrillation B. Angina pectoris C. Congestive heart failure D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Last Answer : D. Acceleration of atherosclerosis

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the capillaries and worsens the condition c. Mannitol is contraindicated as a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the ... a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Last Answer : Answer: a Treatment of pulmonary edema has two important goals, the first is to improve oxygenation if it is impaired, and the second is to minimize fibrosis and bacterial infection, which often ... leaks out , the short term effects of expanding blood volume and decrease in edema will appear

What is the medical term for low blood sugar? A. Hypoglycemia (Answer) B. Lymphoblastic leukemia C. Pulmonary edema D. Diabetes mellitus

Description : What is the medical term for low blood sugar? A. Hypoglycemia (Answer) B. Lymphoblastic leukemia C. Pulmonary edema D. Diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : A. Hypoglycemia (Answer)

Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Description : Imipramine produces the following actions except: A. Euphoria B. Dryness of mouth C. Tachycardia D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Last Answer : A. Euphoria

Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Description : Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Last Answer : D. Rise in body temperature

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence

Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence

Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Last Answer : C. Esmolo

For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamethasone/dexamethasone because: A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention B. They are more potent C. They can be administered intravenously D. They inhibit brain tumours

Description : For limiting cerebral edema due to brain tumour, the preferred corticosteroids are betamethasone/dexamethasone because: A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention B. They are more potent C. They can be administered intravenously D. They inhibit brain tumours

Last Answer : A. They do not cause Na+ and water retention

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

Which of the following is a neuroglucopenic symptom of hypoglycaemia: A. Sweating B. Palpitation C. Tremor D. Abnormal behaviour

Description : Which of the following is a neuroglucopenic symptom of hypoglycaemia: A. Sweating B. Palpitation C. Tremor D. Abnormal behaviour

Last Answer : D. Type 2 diabetes patients not controlled by a biguanide drug

Which of the following is true of counterregulatory symptoms of insulin hypoglycaemia: A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptoms B. They are accentuated after long-term insulin treatment C. They result from parasympathetic activation D. They manifest as hunger and fatigue

Description : Which of the following is true of counterregulatory symptoms of insulin hypoglycaemia: A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptoms B. They are accentuated after long-term insulin treatment C. They result from parasympathetic activation D. They manifest as hunger and fatigue

Last Answer : A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptom

The most common adverse reaction to insulin is: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Lipodystrophy C. Urticaria D. Angioedema

Description : The most common adverse reaction to insulin is: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Lipodystrophy C. Urticaria D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Hypoglycaemia

The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Description : The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia B. Both cause bradycardia C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia D. Both cause tachycardia

Last Answer : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: A. Sick sinus syndrome B. Atrial extrasystoles C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : C. Atrial fibrillation

Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : B. Cardiac depression

The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Description : The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Last Answer : D. Volume overload

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Description : Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Last Answer : B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Description :  Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Last Answer : D. All of the above risks

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

Pulmonary edema?

Description : Pulmonary edema?

Last Answer : DefinitionPulmonary edema is an abnormal build up of fluid in the air sacs of the lungs, which leads to shortness of breathAlternative NamesLung congestion; Lung water; Pulmonary congestionCauses, incidence, ... that caused by poisonous gas or severe infection, as a side effect of medications, o

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

Cyanosis caused by mitral insufficiency is typically associated with C A. Pulmonary vein thrombi B. Pulmonary artery emboli C. Pulmonary edema D. None of these

Description : Cyanosis caused by mitral insufficiency is typically associated with C A. Pulmonary vein thrombi B. Pulmonary artery emboli C. Pulmonary edema D. None of these

Last Answer : Pulmonary edema

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Description : Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs ... pain at the recipient site is anticipated since the wound has been protected by the graft.

Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right middle lobectomy for bronchogenic cancer in a 65-year-old smoker. C. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for chronic duodenal ulcer disease in a 50-year-old who had chest film findings of old, healed tuberculosis. D. Right hemicolectomy in an obese 60-year-old smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Description : Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right ... smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Last Answer : Answer: BDCAE DISCUSSION: If one considers the constellation of risk factors for pulmonary complications that is provided in tabular form in the accompanying chapter, one should ... is associated with relatively little postoperative pain, and provides free and unrestricted respiratory function

Indications of ergometrine include the following except: A. Postpartum haemorrhage B. Inadequate uterine involution C. Uterine inertia during labour D. Uterine atony after cesarean section

Description : Indications of ergometrine include the following except: A. Postpartum haemorrhage B. Inadequate uterine involution C. Uterine inertia during labour D. Uterine atony after cesarean section

Last Answer : C. Uterine inertia during labour

The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Last Answer : B. Furosemide