The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to: A. Reduced venous return B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. All of the above

The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine
is due to:
A. Reduced venous return
B. Ganglionic blockade
C. Histamine release
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis

Description : Neostigmine reverses the following actions of d-tubocurarine except: A. Motor weakness B. Ganglionic blockade C. Histamine release D. Respiratory paralysis

Last Answer : C. Histamine release

The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Description : Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that: A. It is a depolarizing blocker B. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection D. It causes marked histamine release

Last Answer : C. It can cause rise in BP on rapid I.V. injection

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists

Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists

Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or blood pressure C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery

In the intact animal H2 receptor antagonists potentiate the following action of histamine: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Fall in blood pressure C. Uterine relaxation D. Bronchospasm

Description : In the intact animal H2 receptor antagonists potentiate the following action of histamine: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Fall in blood pressure C. Uterine relaxation D. Bronchospasm

Last Answer : D. Bronchospasm

Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Description : Which of the following is applicable to mivacurium: A. It undergoes Hoffmann elimination B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker C. It is excreted unchanged by kidney D. It does not cause histamine release

Last Answer : B. It is the shortest acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium

Description : Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium

Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine

Last Answer : C. Morphine

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Description : The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Last Answer : D. Volume overload

Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by (a) H1 antihistaminics alone (b) H2 ANTAgonists alone (c) Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists (d) None of the above

Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by (a) H1 antihistaminics alone (b) H2 ANTAgonists alone (c) Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists (d) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Description : ostoperative muscle soreness may be a side effect of the following neuromuscular blocker: A. d-tubocurarine B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Atracurium

Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine

The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium

Description : The neuromuscular blocker that does not need reversal of action by neostigmine at the end of the operation is: A. d-Tubocurarine B. Doxacurium C. Pipecuronium D. Mivacurium

Last Answer : D. Mivacurium

At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Description : At the muscle end-plate, d-tubocurarine reduces the: A. Number of Na+ channels B. Duration for which the Na+ channels remain open C. Ion conductance of the open Na+ channel D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

Last Answer : D. Frequency of Na+ channel opening

The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

Description : The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre

Last Answer : C. Muscle end-plate

Edema associated with decreased plasma oncotic pressure may be caused by C A. Sodium depletion B. Histamine release C. Liver disease D. None of these

Description : Edema associated with decreased plasma oncotic pressure may be caused by C A. Sodium depletion B. Histamine release C. Liver disease D. None of these

Last Answer : Liver disease

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors

Description : Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors

Last Answer : C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action

Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant

Description : Adaptive changes in brain monoamine turnover due to blockade of noradrenaline/5-HT reuptake is credited with the following effect: A. Antipsychotic B. Antianxiety C. Antiparkinsonian D. Antidepressant

Last Answer : D. Antidepressant

Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood concentrations of the local anaesthetic are lower after epidural anaesthesia D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

Digitalis is most suitable for treatment of CHF when it is due to: A. Cor pulmonale B. Arterio-venous shunt C. Thiamine deficiency D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertension

Description : Digitalis is most suitable for treatment of CHF when it is due to: A. Cor pulmonale B. Arterio-venous shunt C. Thiamine deficiency D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertension

Last Answer : D. Long-standing uncontrolled hypertensio

When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Last Answer : Ans: A

Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart. b) Left atrium The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. c) Left ventricle The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium. d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Description : Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return ... d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Last Answer : a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart.

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Enalapril

Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Description : Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Last Answer : C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload.

Histamine exerts the following actions except: A. Dilatation of large blood vessels B. Dilatation of small blood vessels C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart D. Itching

Description : Histamine exerts the following actions except: A. Dilatation of large blood vessels B. Dilatation of small blood vessels C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart D. Itching

Last Answer : A. Dilatation of large blood vessels

Histamine exerts the following actions except: A. Dilatation of large blood vessels B. Dilatation of small blood vessels C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart D. Itching

Description : Histamine exerts the following actions except: A. Dilatation of large blood vessels B. Dilatation of small blood vessels C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart D. Itching

Last Answer : A. Dilatation of large blood vessels

The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin

Description : Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: A. Verapamil B. Nifedipine C. Felodipine D. Amlodipin

Last Answer : A. Verapamil

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels

The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Description : The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade

Select the opioid antagonist that is preferred for long term opioid blockade therapy of post addicts: A. Nalorphine B. Naloxone C. Naltrexone D. Nalbuphine

Description : Select the opioid antagonist that is preferred for long term opioid blockade therapy of post addicts: A. Nalorphine B. Naloxone C. Naltrexone D. Nalbuphine

Last Answer : C. Naltrexone

Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. It distributes more in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. ... in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres B. More slender fibres have shorter internodal distances C. Small sensory fibres generate higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Description : Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently ... higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Last Answer : A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres

A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ channel C. Nerve impulse promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state

Description : A resting nerve is relatively resistant to blockade by lignocaine compared to one which is repeatedly stimulated because: A. Lignocaine penetrates resting nerve membrane poorly B. Lignocaine binds ... promotes ionization of lignocaine D. Nodes of Ranvier are inaccessible in the resting state

Last Answer : B. Lignocaine binds more avidly to the inactivated Na+ chan

Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lignocaine depends on: A. Whether the fibre is sensory or motor B. Whether the fibre is myelinated or nonmyelinated C. Internodal distances in the fibre D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Description : The GABAB receptor: A. Is an intrinsic ion channel containing receptor B. Mediates neuronal depolarization C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline D. Regulates intracellular cAMP

Last Answer : C. Is insensitive to blockade by bicuculline

The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Description : The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : A. Streptomycin

The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Description : The purpose/purposes served by the progestin component of the combined estrogen + progestin contraceptive pill is/are: A. Suppression of ovulation B. Prompt bleeding at the end of the course C. Blockade of increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Labetalol has: A. More potent β adrenergic blocking than α blocking activity B. More potent α adrenergic blocking than β blocking activity C. Equal α and β adrenergic blocking activity D. β1 agonistic activity in addition to α and β adrenergic blockade

Description : Labetalol has: A. More potent β adrenergic blocking than α blocking activity B. More potent α adrenergic blocking than β blocking activity C. Equal α and β adrenergic blocking activity D. β1 agonistic activity in addition to α and β adrenergic blockade

Last Answer : A. More potent β adrenergic blocking than α blocking activity

Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of: A. Pimozide B. Haloperidol C. Ketanserin D. Clozapine

Description : Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of: A. Pimozide B. Haloperidol C. Ketanserin D. Clozapine

Last Answer : D. Clozapine

Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins