Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against
gram positive bacteria and anaerobes:
A. Pefloxacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Sparfloxacin
D. Norfloxacin
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Sparfloxacin
by

Related questions

Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Last Answer : Ans: C

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin

Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance

Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except: A. Long postantibiotic effect B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes C. MBC values close to MIC values D. Slow development of resistance

Last Answer : B. Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes

The following fluoroquinolones have augmented activity against gram positive bacteria except: A. Lomefloxacin B. Levofloxacin C. Gatifloxacin D. Moxifloxacin

Description : The following fluoroquinolones have augmented activity against gram positive bacteria except: A. Lomefloxacin B. Levofloxacin C. Gatifloxacin D. Moxifloxacin

Last Answer : A. Lomefloxacin

The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Last Answer : C. Clindamycin

The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Description : Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : D. Gram negative bacteria

Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci

Description : Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci

Last Answer : C. Anaerobic bacilli

Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Description : Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Last Answer : A. Cefdinir

The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient c. A minimum of two weeks of antibiotic therapy is indicated d. The addition of appropriate antibiotic therapy has made surgical therapy unnecessary in such cases e. Either a single agent or combination therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination

All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Last Answer : Ans: B

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Last Answer : Ans: B

Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical C. It is rapidly inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical

Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except: A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria C. Potential to prolong QTc interval D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia

Description : Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except: A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria C. Potential to prolong QTc interval D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia

Last Answer : B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria

Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria

Description : The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria

Last Answer : C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration

Superinfections are more common with: A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics B. Short courses of antibiotics C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Description : Superinfections are more common with: A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics B. Short courses of antibiotics C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Description : Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin

Last Answer : C. Nitrofurantoin

Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin

Description : Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin

Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid

The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not useful in systemic infections: A. Lomefloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Nalidixic acid D. Pefloxacin

Description : The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not useful in systemic infections: A. Lomefloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Nalidixic acid D. Pefloxacin

Last Answer : C. Nalidixic acid

Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Description : Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Yersinia pestis

Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Description : Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Last Answer : B. Amoxicillin

The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Description : The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Last Answer : D. Volume overload

Ciprofloxacin is not active against: A. H.influenzae B. E.coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Bacteroides fragilis

Description : Ciprofloxacin is not active against: A. H.influenzae B. E.coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Bacteroides fragilis

Last Answer : D. Bacteroides fragilis

The third generation cephalosporins differ from the first generation cephalosporins in that they are: A. More active against gram positive cocci B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae C. Nonimmunogenic D. Not excreted by tubular secretion

Description : The third generation cephalosporins differ from the first generation cephalosporins in that they are: A. More active against gram positive cocci B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae C. Nonimmunogenic D. Not excreted by tubular secretion

Last Answer : B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae

An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Description : An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin

A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Description : A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Last Answer : B. Gentamicin

Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life

The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive to the latter C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Description : The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive ... β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases

If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually resistant species, penicillin is not indicated c. Immediate operative intervention and aggressive resection of all involved tissues is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Description : If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually ... is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Identification of a necrotizing, soft tissue infection mandates immediate operative intervention with aggressive resection of all involved tissues and empiric ... remains without controlled trials demonstrating any additional benefits derived from hyperbaric oxygen therapy

What is true of cefpirome: A. It is a fourth generation cephalosporin B. It easily penetrates porin channels of gram negative bacteria C. It inhibits type I β-lactamase producing enterobacteriaceae D. All of the above

Description : What is true of cefpirome: A. It is a fourth generation cephalosporin B. It easily penetrates porin channels of gram negative bacteria C. It inhibits type I β-lactamase producing enterobacteriaceae D. All of the above

Last Answer : . All of the above

Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because: A. They produce large quantities of penicillinase B. They do not utilise D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited by benzylpenicillin C. Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because: A. They produce large quantities of penicillinase B. They do not utilise D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited ... multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : . Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Description : Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Last Answer : D. Nitrofurantoin

Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which is the most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico

The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Description : The drug of choice for atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae is: A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ceftriaxone D. Gentamicin

Last Answer : A. Doxycycline

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Description : The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Chloramphenicol D. Ceftriaxone

Last Answer : C. Chloramphenicol

Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin

Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin

A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Last Answer : B. Kidney

The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The following drug can cause rickets in children by interfering with vitamin D action: A. Tetracycline B. Digoxin C. Phenytoin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Phenytoin

This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in penicillinallergic patients. Its activity against gramnegative rods is enhanced if it is given in combination with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Description : This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in ... with tazobactam (a) Amoxicillin (b) Aztreonam (c) Imipenem (d) Piperacillin (e) Vancomycin

Last Answer : Ans: D