The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to
ciprofloxacin is/are:
A. Enhanced activity against gram positive
bacteria
B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with
theophylline and warfarin
C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes: A. Pefloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Sparfloxacin D. Norfloxacin

Last Answer : C. Sparfloxacin

Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ? (a) Pefloxacin (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Sparfloxacin (d) Norfloxacin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except: A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria C. Potential to prolong QTc interval D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia

Description : Distinctive features of gatifloxacin include the following except: A. Higher affinity for the enzyme topoisomerase IV B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria C. Potential to prolong QTc interval D. Employed to treat community acquired pneumonia

Last Answer : B. Activity restricted to gram negative bacteria

The following fluoroquinolones have augmented activity against gram positive bacteria except: A. Lomefloxacin B. Levofloxacin C. Gatifloxacin D. Moxifloxacin

Description : The following fluoroquinolones have augmented activity against gram positive bacteria except: A. Lomefloxacin B. Levofloxacin C. Gatifloxacin D. Moxifloxacin

Last Answer : A. Lomefloxacin

Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin

The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Description : Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Last Answer : A. Very long duration of action

he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood–CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Last Answer : C. Clindamycin

The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Description : Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : D. Gram negative bacteria

Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci

Description : Metronidazole is used in peridontal abscess because of activity against: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Anaerobic bacilli D. Aerobic gram positive cocci

Last Answer : C. Anaerobic bacilli

Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Description : Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Last Answer : A. Cefdinir

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Description : Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Last Answer : A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin

Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Description : Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Last Answer : D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine

Description : Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine

Last Answer : A. Smokers

Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Description : Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Description : Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria: A. Chloramphenicol B. Ciprofloxacin C. Streptomycin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin

The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis

The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis

Agonist induced autophosphorylation, internalization and down regulation is a distinctive feature of: A. G-protein coupled receptors B. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptors C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors D. Receptors regulating gene expression

Description : Agonist induced autophosphorylation, internalization and down regulation is a distinctive feature of: A. G-protein coupled receptors B. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptors C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors D. Receptors regulating gene expression

Last Answer : C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors

The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Description : The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Last Answer : C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients

The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

Description : The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

Last Answer : B. It is inducible

Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of: A. Pimozide B. Haloperidol C. Ketanserin D. Clozapine

Description : Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of: A. Pimozide B. Haloperidol C. Ketanserin D. Clozapine

Last Answer : D. Clozapine

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria

Description : The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria

Last Answer : C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration

Superinfections are more common with: A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics B. Short courses of antibiotics C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Description : Superinfections are more common with: A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics B. Short courses of antibiotics C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Which of the following drugs inhibits theophylline metabolism and raises its plasma concentration: A. Phenytoin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Levofloxacin D. Rifampicin

Description : Which of the following drugs inhibits theophylline metabolism and raises its plasma concentration: A. Phenytoin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Levofloxacin D. Rifampicin

Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin

The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life

Description : Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life

Last Answer : D. Plasma half life

Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Description : Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Yersinia pestis

Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The gram-positive bacteria lack __________ structure/component? A.outer membrane B.murein C.teichoic acid D.plasma membrane

Description : The gram-positive bacteria lack __________ structure/component? A.outer membrane  B.murein C.teichoic acid  D.plasma membrane

Last Answer : A.outer membrane

Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Description : Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Last Answer : B. Amoxicillin

The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Description : The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

Last Answer : D. Volume overload

Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Description : Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin is not active against: A. H.influenzae B. E.coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Bacteroides fragilis

Description : Ciprofloxacin is not active against: A. H.influenzae B. E.coli C. Enterobacter spp. D. Bacteroides fragilis

Last Answer : D. Bacteroides fragilis

The third generation cephalosporins differ from the first generation cephalosporins in that they are: A. More active against gram positive cocci B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae C. Nonimmunogenic D. Not excreted by tubular secretion

Description : The third generation cephalosporins differ from the first generation cephalosporins in that they are: A. More active against gram positive cocci B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae C. Nonimmunogenic D. Not excreted by tubular secretion

Last Answer : B. More active against gram negative enterobacteriaceae

The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Description : A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients

Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Last Answer : A. Nifedipine

In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended in all type 2 diabetes patients C. Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Description : In diabetic patients, round the clock tight control of hyperglycaemia achieved by multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pumps: A. Prevents macrovascular disease more effectively B. Is recommended ... Is associated with higher incidence of hypoglycaemic reactions D. Both A and C are correct

Last Answer : D. Both A and C are correct

Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life

The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive to the latter C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Description : The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive ... β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction? a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia b) Antacids reduce the absorption of fluoroquinolones c) Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin

Description : Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction? a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia b) Antacids reduce the absorption ... Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin

Last Answer : a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening hyperkalaemia

Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of interaction? A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin B. Giving Aspirin with warfarin C. Instructing patient to take levofloxacin with milk or antacid D. Treatment of depression of MAO Inhibitor and Citalopram

Description : Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of interaction? A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin B. Giving Aspirin with warfarin C. Instructing patient to take levofloxacin with milk or antacid D. Treatment of depression of MAO Inhibitor and Citalopram

Last Answer : A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin