The daily dose of elemental iron for maximal haemopoietic response in an anaemic adult is: A. 30 mg B. 100 mg C. 200 mg D. 500 mg

The daily dose of elemental iron for maximal haemopoietic response in an anaemic adult is:
A. 30 mg
B. 100 mg
C. 200 mg
D. 500 mg
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. 200 mg
by

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A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg 3 times a day × 7 days with pyrimethamine 75 mg + sulfadoxine 1500 mg on first day C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days

The daily dietary requirement of vit B12 by an adult is: A. 1-3 μg B. 50-100 μg C. 0.1-0.5 mg D. 1-3 mg

Description : The daily dietary requirement of vit B12 by an adult is: A. 1-3 μg B. 50-100 μg C. 0.1-0.5 mg D. 1-3 mg

Last Answer : A. 1-3 μg

What is considered to be the safe limit of daily alcohol consumption by an adult man in the absence of contraindications and interacting drugs: A. 20-40 ml of ****** B. 50-100 ml of ****** C. 120-180 ml of ****** D. 200-300 ml of ******

Description : What is considered to be the safe limit of daily alcohol consumption by an adult man in the absence of contraindications and interacting drugs: A. 20-40 ml of whisky B. 50-100 ml of whisky C. 120-180 ml of whisky D. 200-300 ml of whisky

Last Answer : B. 50-100 ml of whisky

A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. Stop prednisolone B. Reduce prednisolone dose to 5 mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Description : A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. ... mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Last Answer : C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose

A patient being treated with 20 mg prednisolone daily has to be shifted on to dexamethasone. What should be his daily dose of dexamethasone: A. 0.75 mg B. 3 mg C. 10 mg D. 40 mg

Description : A patient being treated with 20 mg prednisolone daily has to be shifted on to dexamethasone. What should be his daily dose of dexamethasone: A. 0.75 mg B. 3 mg C. 10 mg D. 40 mg

Last Answer : B. 3 mg

The total dose of chloroquine (base) for treatment of an episode of malarial fever in a nonimmune adult is: A. 1000 mg B. 1500 mg C. 2000 mg D. 2500 mg

Description : The total dose of chloroquine (base) for treatment of an episode of malarial fever in a nonimmune adult is: A. 1000 mg B. 1500 mg C. 2000 mg D. 2500 mg

Last Answer : B. 1500 mg

6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should be done to the oral prednisolone medication after starting inhaled beclomethasone: A. It should be stopped immediately B. Its dose should be tapered from the next day C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Description : 6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should ... week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Last Answer : C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered

In glycinuria daily urinary excretion of glycine ranges from (A) 100–200 mg (B) 300–500 mg (C) 600–1000 mg (D) 1100–1400 mg

Description : In glycinuria daily urinary excretion of glycine ranges from (A) 100–200 mg (B) 300–500 mg (C) 600–1000 mg (D) 1100–1400 mg

Last Answer : Answer : C

60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Description : 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Description : A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

he percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulfate is: A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 33%

Description : he percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulfate is: A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 33%

Last Answer : C. 20%

The daily calcium requirement in pregnancy and lactation is about (A) 600 mg (B) 800 mg (C) 1,200 mg (D) 1,500 mg

Description : The daily calcium requirement in pregnancy and lactation is about (A) 600 mg (B) 800 mg (C) 1,200 mg (D) 1,500 mg

Last Answer : Answer : C

The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Description : The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Last Answer : B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day

The daily water allowance for normal adult (60 kg) is about (A) 200–600 ml (B) 500–800 ml (C) 800–1500 ml (D) 1800–2500 ml

Description : The daily water allowance for normal adult (60 kg) is about (A) 200–600 ml (B) 500–800 ml (C) 800–1500 ml (D) 1800–2500 ml

Last Answer : Answer : D

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is : (A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%

Description : A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is : (A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%

Last Answer : (C) 12.5%

Daily iron requirement of an adult man is about (A) 1 mg (B) 5 mg (C) 10 mg (D) 18 mg

Description : Daily iron requirement of an adult man is about (A) 1 mg (B) 5 mg (C) 10 mg (D) 18 mg

Last Answer : Answer : C

Total daily iron loss of an adult man is about (A) 0.1 mg (B) 1 mg (C) 5 mg (D) 10 mg

Description : Total daily iron loss of an adult man is about (A) 0.1 mg (B) 1 mg (C) 5 mg (D) 10 mg

Last Answer : Answer : B

Daily requirement of iron for normal adult male is about (A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg (C) 15 mg (D) 20 mg

Description : Daily requirement of iron for normal adult male is about (A) 5 mg (B) 10 mg (C) 15 mg (D) 20 mg

Last Answer : Answer : B

Daily requirement of calcium for normal adult human is (A) 100 mg (B) 800 mg (C) 2 g (D) 4 g

Description : Daily requirement of calcium for normal adult human is (A) 100 mg (B) 800 mg (C) 2 g (D) 4 g

Last Answer : Answer : B

Daily iodine requirement of an adult is about (A) 50 µg (B) 100 µg (C) 150 µg (D) 1 mg

Description : Daily iodine requirement of an adult is about (A) 50 µg (B) 100 µg (C) 150 µg (D) 1 mg

Last Answer : Answer : C

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov

Description : The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov

Last Answer : D. All of the abov

The total amount of copper in the body of an average adult is (A) 1 gm (B) 500 mg (C) 100 mg (D) 10 mg

Description : The total amount of copper in the body of an average adult is (A) 1 gm (B) 500 mg (C) 100 mg (D) 10 mg

Last Answer : Answer : C

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Gentamicin

The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman

Description : The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman

Last Answer : C. Lower than that for contraception

The following measure can minimise pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy: A. Use of betamethasone in place of prednisolone B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days C. Division of the daily dose in three equal 8 hourly doses D. Administration of the total daily dose at bed time

Description : The following measure can minimise pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy: A. Use of betamethasone in place of prednisolone B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days C. Division of ... in three equal 8 hourly doses D. Administration of the total daily dose at bed time

Last Answer : B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action

Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

Description : Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes

Description : Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes

Last Answer : A. They have a steeper dose response curve

The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Description : The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Last Answer : B. It is a rectangular hyperbola

An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the other drug his BP fell precipitously. The most likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : B. Captopril

he antiepileptic drug which suppresses maximal electroshock as well as kindled seizures, raises pentylenetetrazol threshold and is effective in both generalized tonic-clonic as well as absence seizures is: A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Sodium valproate D. Ethosuximide

Description : he antiepileptic drug which suppresses maximal electroshock as well as kindled seizures, raises pentylenetetrazol threshold and is effective in both generalized tonic-clonic as well as absence seizures is: A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Sodium valproate D. Ethosuximide

Last Answer : C. Sodium valproate

The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone

Description : The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone

Last Answer : A. Ethosuximide

Carbamazepine possesses the following property not shared by phenytoin: A. Modification of maximal electroshock seizures B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions C. Suppression of complex partial seizures D. Amelioration of trigeminal neuralgia

Description : Carbamazepine possesses the following property not shared by phenytoin: A. Modification of maximal electroshock seizures B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions C. Suppression of complex partial seizures D. Amelioration of trigeminal neuralgia

Last Answer : B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions

The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be (A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L

Description : The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be (A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L

Last Answer : (A)10 L

A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules with milk B. Take the capsules with meals C. Take aluminium hydroxide gel 15 minutes before the capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

Description : A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules ... capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

Last Answer : D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

A patient with coronary artery disease has raised serum triglyceride level (500 mg/dl) but normal total cholesterol level (150 mg/dl). Which hypolipidemic drug should be prescribed: A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Cholestyramine D. Lovastatin

Description : A patient with coronary artery disease has raised serum triglyceride level (500 mg/dl) but normal total cholesterol level (150 mg/dl). Which hypolipidemic drug should be prescribed: A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Cholestyramine D. Lovastatin

Last Answer : B. Gemfibrozil

The daily water loss through gastrointestinal tract in an adult is about (A) Less than 100 ml/day (B) 200 ml/day (C) 300 ml/day (D) 400 ml/day

Description : The daily water loss through gastrointestinal tract in an adult is about (A) Less than 100 ml/day (B) 200 ml/day (C) 300 ml/day (D) 400 ml/day

Last Answer : Answer : A

For an adult male daily requirement of iodine is (A) 25–50 µg (B) 50–100 µg (C) 100–150 µg (D) 200–250 µg

Description : For an adult male daily requirement of iodine is (A) 25–50 µg (B) 50–100 µg (C) 100–150 µg (D) 200–250 µg

Last Answer : Answer : A