What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of
tuberculosis:
A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and
a later continuation phase
B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced
after clinical response occurs
C. The patient himself is made responsible for
administering antitubercular drugs
D. All of the above are correct

1 Answer

Answer :

A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and
a later continuation phase

Related questions

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Last Answer : C. 6 months

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Last Answer : . Started immediately

Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient

Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Description : The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action B. Compensatory ... these drugs C. They decrease glomerular filtration D. They have relatively flat dose response curve

Last Answer : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism

Description : 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

Description : A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : A. Pindolol

Description : In a patient of hypertension, the dose of propranolol that normalized blood pressure, reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following β blockers will be most suitable for him as an ... so that heart rate is not markedly reduced: A. Pindolol B. Celiprolol C. Bisoprolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : A. Pindolol

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of ... than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

Description : DOTS is a treatment given to patients suffering from – (1) Polio (2) AIDS (3) Hepatitis (4) Tuberculosis

Last Answer : (4) Tuberculosis Explanation: DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short Course), also known as TBDOTS, is the name given to the tuberculosis control strategy recommended by the World ... curative method for treatment of tuberculosis because of its highly efficient and cost-effective strategy.

Description : DOTS is a treatment given to patients suffering from (1) Polio (2) AIDS (3) Hepatitis (4) Tuberculosis

Last Answer : Tuberculosis

Description : A patient has an episode of hematemesis following streptokinase infused for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in controlling the bleeding episode: A. Vitamin K B. Noradrenaline C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid D. Rutin

Last Answer : C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid

Description : Which of the following is associated with Hyperuricaemia? 1) is usually due to an excess purine consumption 2) occurs in association with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia 3) in primary gout is inherited in ... with low dose aspirin therapy 5) can be treated with uricosuric drugs even in renal failure

Last Answer : Answers-2 Hyperuricaemia may be due to increased purine intake, urate production or reduced urate clearance, and is most commonly due to the latter. Therefore it can occur in association with enhanced ... . Many of the uricosuric drugs may be detrimental in renal failure and may not be effective.

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

Description : The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum ... Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

Last Answer : A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

Description : Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Last Answer : A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin

Description : Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Description : The following statement is not true of log dose-response curve: A. It is almost linear except at the ends B. It is a rectangular hyperbola C. It facilitates comparison of different agonists D. It can help in discriminating between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists

Last Answer : B. It is a rectangular hyperbola

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG d. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position.

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position

Description : Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made ... clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

Description : 6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should ... week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Last Answer : C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

Description : The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis