A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500 mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of the following measures will you recommend to counteract the side effect: A. Take the capsules with milk B. Take the capsules with meals C. Take aluminium hydroxide gel 15 minutes before the capsules D. None of the above measures is suitable. Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing

A patient treated with capsule oxytetracycline 500
mg 6 hourly complained of epigastric pain. Which of
the following measures will you recommend to
counteract the side effect:
A. Take the capsules with milk
B. Take the capsules with meals
C. Take aluminium hydroxide gel 15 minutes
before the capsules
D. None of the above measures is suitable.
Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. None of the above measures is suitable.
Change the antibiotic if pain is distressing
by

Related questions

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

The following is true of aluminium hydroxide gel except: A. It is a weak and slowly reacting antacid B. Its acid neutralizing capacity decreases on storage C. It interferes with absorption of phosphate in the intestine D. It causes loose motions as a side effect

Description : The following is true of aluminium hydroxide gel except: A. It is a weak and slowly reacting antacid B. Its acid neutralizing capacity decreases on storage C. It interferes with absorption of phosphate in the intestine D. It causes loose motions as a side effect

Last Answer : D. It causes loose motions as a side effec

The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is: A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset B. Black stools C. Staining of teeth D. Metallic taste

Description : The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is: A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset B. Black stools C. Staining of teeth D. Metallic taste

Last Answer : A. Epigastric pain and bowel upset

he most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is: A. Tetracycline B. Demeclocycline C. Oxytetracycline D. Doxycycline

Description : he most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is: A. Tetracycline B. Demeclocycline C. Oxytetracycline D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : D. Doxycycline

Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline

Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : C. Minocycline

ndicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel B. Omeprazole C. Mosapride D. Famotidine

Description : ndicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel B. Omeprazole C. Mosapride D. Famotidine

Last Answer : B. Omeprazole

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. Stop prednisolone B. Reduce prednisolone dose to 5 mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Description : A patient of chronic bronchial asthma maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required develops chest infection. Which of the following measures is recommended: A. ... mg/day C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose D. Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonid

Last Answer : C. No change/increase in prednisolone dose

Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Gentamicin

A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while blood picture and haemoglobin level were improved. What could be the most likely explanation: A. Folic acid was not adequately absorbed resulting in partial response B. Folate therapy has precipitated vitamin B12 deficiency in the neural tissue C. Folate therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Description : A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with oral folic acid 5 mg daily. After 2 weeks he reported back with cognitive deficit, sensory disturbance, depressed knee jerk, while ... therapy has unmasked pyridoxine deficiency D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

Last Answer : D. Patient has folate reductase abnormality in the nervous system

A patient being treated with 20 mg prednisolone daily has to be shifted on to dexamethasone. What should be his daily dose of dexamethasone: A. 0.75 mg B. 3 mg C. 10 mg D. 40 mg

Description : A patient being treated with 20 mg prednisolone daily has to be shifted on to dexamethasone. What should be his daily dose of dexamethasone: A. 0.75 mg B. 3 mg C. 10 mg D. 40 mg

Last Answer : B. 3 mg

A child presented with polyuria, weakness and fever. On the basis of investigations he was labelled to be suffering from Fancony syndrome. A history of taking some old left over antibiotic capsules was obtained. What could have been the antibiotic: A. Tetracycline B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Cephalexi

Description : A child presented with polyuria, weakness and fever. On the basis of investigations he was labelled to be suffering from Fancony syndrome. A history of taking some old left over antibiotic ... What could have been the antibiotic: A. Tetracycline B. Chloramphenicol C. Ampicillin D. Cephalexi

Last Answer : A. Tetracycline

The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg 3 times a day × 7 days with pyrimethamine 75 mg + sulfadoxine 1500 mg on first day C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days

A patient with coronary artery disease has raised serum triglyceride level (500 mg/dl) but normal total cholesterol level (150 mg/dl). Which hypolipidemic drug should be prescribed: A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Cholestyramine D. Lovastatin

Description : A patient with coronary artery disease has raised serum triglyceride level (500 mg/dl) but normal total cholesterol level (150 mg/dl). Which hypolipidemic drug should be prescribed: A. Probucol B. Gemfibrozil C. Cholestyramine D. Lovastatin

Last Answer : B. Gemfibrozil

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of androgenic activity: A. Micronized oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Description : Select the progestin preparation for coadministration with estrogen for hormone replacement therapy that does not counteract the beneficial effect of the latter on lipid profile due to lack of ... oral progesterone B. Norethindrone C. Lynestrenol D. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (p. 281-282)

Last Answer : Select the indication for which a progestin is used alone without combining with an estrogen: A. Threatened abortion B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C. Hormone replacement therapy D. Premenstrual tension

The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : The distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Description : he distinctive features of desogestrel include the following except: A. It is a prodrug B. It has both strong progestational and strong antiovulatory activities C. It has additional androgenic acitivity D. It does not counteract the beneficial effect of estrogen on lipid profile

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline

Description : The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline

Last Answer : A. Minocycline

old man healthy felt in collapse before he collapsed there was epigastric discomfort , came with pain n the back, pulse 114, bp 140L…dx: Perforated peptic ulcer Leakage aortic aneurysm

Description : old man healthy felt in collapse before he collapsed there was epigastric discomfort , came with pain n the back, pulse 114, bp 140L…dx: Perforated peptic ulcer Leakage aortic aneurysm

Last Answer : Leakage aortic aneurysm

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

Is Fluclox 500 capsule an antibiotic ?

Description : Is Fluclox 500 capsule an antibiotic ?

Last Answer : The medicine you mentioned is antibiotic. It is used for pneumonia , burns , sinusitis , tonsillitis , skin problems , acne , eczema etc.

A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which is the most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine

Description : 2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine

Last Answer : A. Ferrous sulfate

6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should be done to the oral prednisolone medication after starting inhaled beclomethasone: A. It should be stopped immediately B. Its dose should be tapered from the next day C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Description : 6 A patient of chronic bronchial asthma was maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg/day for 3 months. It was decided to switch him over to inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate 200 μg 4 times a day. What should ... week and then tapered D. Its dose should be doubled for one week and then tapered (p. 2

Last Answer : C. It should be given at the same dose for one week and then tapered

A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

If a pharmacist has 808.4 grams of allergy medicine to put into capsules and must put 37.6 grams of the medicine into each capsule How many capsules can he fill?

Description : If a pharmacist has 808.4 grams of allergy medicine to put into capsules and must put 37.6 grams of the medicine into each capsule How many capsules can he fill?

Last Answer : 21.5 capsules808.4 / 37.6 = exactly 21.5

What.. a pharmacist has 808.4 grams of allergy medicine to put into capsules. he must put 37.6 grams of medicine into each capsule. How many capsules can be filled by a pharmacist do not round answer?

Description : What.. a pharmacist has 808.4 grams of allergy medicine to put into capsules. he must put 37.6 grams of medicine into each capsule. How many capsules can be filled by a pharmacist do not round answer?

Last Answer : 21.5 capsules

What a pharmacist has 808.4 grams of allergy medicine to put into the capsules. he must put 37.6 grams of the medicine into each capsule how many capsules can be filled by a pharmacist do not round th?

Description : What a pharmacist has 808.4 grams of allergy medicine to put into the capsules. he must put 37.6 grams of the medicine into each capsule how many capsules can be filled by a pharmacist do not round th?

Last Answer : 21.5 capsules

Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the left shoulder C. Tenderness and rigidity at the left epigastric area radiating to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Description : Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the ... to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Last Answer : D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the other drug his BP fell precipitously. The most likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : B. Captopril

The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach. b) Minimize intake of caffeine, ****, milk, and foods containing peppermint and spearmint. The patient should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not ... blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Last Answer : a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach.

The following calcium channel blocker is specifically indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and neurological sequelae following subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Lacidipine B. Nimodipine C. Nicardipine D. Nitrendipine

Description : The following calcium channel blocker is specifically indicated to counteract cerebral vasospasm and neurological sequelae following subarachnoid haemorrhage: A. Lacidipine B. Nimodipine C. Nicardipine D. Nitrendipine

Last Answer : B. Nimodipine

Potassium therapy tends to counteract the cardiac toxicity of digitalis by: A. Reducing the affinity of sarcolemal Na+ K+ATPase for digitalis B. Suppressing ectopic automaticity enhanced by digitalis C. Promoting A-V conduction D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Potassium therapy tends to counteract the cardiac toxicity of digitalis by: A. Reducing the affinity of sarcolemal Na+ K+ATPase for digitalis B. Suppressing ectopic automaticity enhanced by digitalis C. Promoting A-V conduction D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis

Description : A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis

Last Answer : C. Side effect of the drug

An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

The daily dose of elemental iron for maximal haemopoietic response in an anaemic adult is: A. 30 mg B. 100 mg C. 200 mg D. 500 mg

Description : The daily dose of elemental iron for maximal haemopoietic response in an anaemic adult is: A. 30 mg B. 100 mg C. 200 mg D. 500 mg

Last Answer : C. 200 mg

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Description : 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Description : A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Description : A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided: A. Ampicillin B. Gentamicin C. Norfloxacin D. Cotrimoxazole

Last Answer : B. Gentamicin

Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient

Description : Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient

Last Answer : A. Diuretic treated patients