Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Low molecular weight heparins have the following
advantages over unfractionated heparin except:
A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
B. Less frequent dosing
C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous
bioavailability
D. Laboratory monitoring of response not
required
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
by

Related questions

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance

Description : When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance

Last Answer : Ans: A

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Description : There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Last Answer : Answer: a, b A number of hypercoaguable states are present. These include heparin-associated thrombocytopenia in which a heparin-dependent platelet antibody causes aggregation of ... soft tissue increasing vascular permeability and fragility resulting in the potential for bleeding disorders

The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Description : The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Warfarin

Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Description : Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Last Answer : A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Description : The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Last Answer : D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Last Answer : A. Generation of an active metabolit

Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral bioavailability C. It is the longest acting and the safest glycoside D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the ... serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In monitoring the effect of heparin, an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 control or a thrombin clotting time (TCT) of 2 times control reflects adequate ... system. Therefore the dose of heparin need not be adjusted in cases of liver or renal dysfunction

Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs C. They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Description : Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal ... . They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Last Answer : B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Description : Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

Toxicity of local anaesthetics involves the following organs except: A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidney D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue

Description : Toxicity of local anaesthetics involves the following organs except: A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidney D. Skin and subcutaneous tissue (p. 324)

Last Answer : D. Dibucaine

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones

Description : Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones

Last Answer : C. Endometrial carcinoma

Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Description : Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Last Answer : D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Compared to H2 blockers, omeprazole affords the following: A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster healing of duodenal ulcer C. Higher efficacy in healing reflux esophagitis D. All of the above

Description : Compared to H2 blockers, omeprazole affords the following: A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster healing of duodenal ulcer C. Higher efficacy in healing reflux esophagitis D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood–CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Description : 15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Description : Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Last Answer : B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome

The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

hematological disease occurs in children treated with heparin and fresh frozen plasma what is the disease : A)hemophilia A B)hemophilia B C )VON WILL brand disease d)DIC thrombosis

Description : hematological disease occurs in children treated with heparin and fresh frozen plasma what is the disease : A)hemophilia A B)hemophilia B C )VON WILL brand disease d)DIC thrombosis

Last Answer : d)DIC thrombosis

Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes

Description : Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in the following aspects except: A. They have a steeper dose response curve B. They have higher therapeutic index C. They have lower abuse liability D. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes

Last Answer : A. They have a steeper dose response curve

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning O2 venous saturation monitoring? a. The normal saturation of mixed venous blood is 50% b. Mixed venous blood obtained for saturation monitoring can be obtained from any peripheral vein c. If arterial blood is fully saturated, the saturation of mixed venous blood is 80% d. In less than fully saturated blood, the difference between arterial and venous saturation corresponds to oxygen extraction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning O2 venous saturation monitoring? a. The normal saturation of mixed venous blood is 50% b. Mixed venous blood obtained ... than fully saturated blood, the difference between arterial and venous saturation corresponds to oxygen extraction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The relationship between oxygen delivery and oxygen consumption is reflected in the amount of oxygen in venous blood. Under normal circumstances, oxygen delivery is 1000 ... and venous saturation corresponds to the oxygen extraction, hence the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption ratio

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

the best to give as DVT prophylaxis post surgery which is cost effective, safe with high efficacy: a) LMWH b) Unfractioned Heparin

Description : the best to give as DVT prophylaxis post surgery which is cost effective, safe with high efficacy: a) LMWH b) Unfractioned Heparin

Last Answer : a) LMWH

Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Description : Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Proguanil

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is: A. Low ulcer healing efficacy B. Poor relief of ulcer pain C. High incidence of side effects D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Description : The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is: A. Low ulcer healing efficacy B. Poor relief of ulcer pain C. High incidence of side effects D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Last Answer : D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response

Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response

Which one of the following statements about “one daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal insufficiency (c) Less nursing time is required (d) It is often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Description : Which one of the following statements about one daily dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal ... often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Last Answer : Ans: B

Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : B. Activated partial thromboplastin time