The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the
treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is:
A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes
B. Hyperinsulinemia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to
severe cases
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to
severe cases
by

Related questions

The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 diabetes mellitus (p. 250) 18.33 1 8 . 3 3 C 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Description : The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 ... 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Last Answer : C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone: A. It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome proliferator receptor γ B. It enhances transcription of insulin responsive genes C. It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. They are used only in type I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Description : The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. ... I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Last Answer : D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Description : Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Last Answer : A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis

Hypoglycaemic coma can occur (A) In untreated diabetes mellitus (B) In starvation (C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs (D) After overdose of insulin

Description : Hypoglycaemic coma can occur (A) In untreated diabetes mellitus (B) In starvation (C) After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs (D) After overdose of insulin

Last Answer : Answer : D

Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Description : Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

Last Answer : B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis

Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes. C) Type I diabetes occurs as a result of destruction of the insulin-producing cells. D) One method of treating type II diabetes is exercise and a low-fat, low-sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Description : Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II ... -sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Last Answer : B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes.

A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Description : A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Description : The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis

Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided

Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases

The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is: A. Low ulcer healing efficacy B. Poor relief of ulcer pain C. High incidence of side effects D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Description : The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is: A. Low ulcer healing efficacy B. Poor relief of ulcer pain C. High incidence of side effects D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Last Answer : D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Which of the following statements are true of elevated–anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric acids may lead to this form of acidosis. C. Copious diarrhea does not produce this condition. D. Rapid volume expansion may produce this form of acidosis. E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of elevated-anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric ... E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: An elevated anion gap may be produced by lactic acidosis from shock or by retention of inorganic acids from uremia. Lactated Ringer's solution rapidly corrects the ... . Bicarbonate loss from diarrhea and dilutional acidosis are non-anion gap types of metabolic acidosis

Which of the following symptoms is NOT characteristic of diabetes mellitus? A) cells unable to take up glucose B) increased breakdown of fats and protein C) frequent urination D) sugar in the urine E) bronzing of the skin

Description : Which of the following symptoms is NOT characteristic of diabetes mellitus? A) cells unable to take up glucose B) increased breakdown of fats and protein C) frequent urination D) sugar in the urine E) bronzing of the skin

Last Answer : E) bronzing of the skin

Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes mellitus: A. Glimepiride B. Miglitol C. Repaglinide D. Rosiglitazone

Description : Which of the following is not a sulfonylurea but acts by analogous mechanism to bring about quick and brief insulin release that is useful for normalizing meal time glycaemic excursions in type 2 diabetes mellitus: A. Glimepiride B. Miglitol C. Repaglinide D. Rosiglitazone

Last Answer : C. Repaglinide

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not a specific indication for the more expensive monocomponent/human insulins: A. Insulin resistance B. Pregnant diabetic C. Sulfonylurea maintained diabetic posted for surgery D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Description : Insulin therapy is required for the following category/ categories of type 2 diabetes mellitus patients: A. Patients with ketoacidosis B. Patients undergoing surgery C. Pregnant diabetic D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor ... for immediate hospitalization. The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.

Last Answer : a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout

Description : Prolonged lithium therapy can cause: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Goiter C. Parkinsonism D. Gout

Last Answer : B. Goiter

The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Description : The following feature disfavours use of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus: A. Age at onset of disease over 40 years B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day C. Fasting blood sugar level between 100–200 mg/dl D. Associated obesity

Last Answer : B. Insulin requirement more than 40 U/day

In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Description : In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : A. Prednisolone

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

The β-lipoprotein fraction increases in severe (A) Diabetes Mellitus (B) Uremia (C) Nephritis (D) Muscular dystrophy

Description : The β-lipoprotein fraction increases in severe (A) Diabetes Mellitus (B) Uremia (C) Nephritis (D) Muscular dystrophy

Last Answer : Answer : A

Prophylactic therapy of migraine: A. Is recommended in all cases B. Benefits upto 70% patients of moderate to severe migraine C. Needs to be continued lifelong without interruption D. Reduces the severity but increases the frequency of migraine attacks

Description : Prophylactic therapy of migraine: A. Is recommended in all cases B. Benefits upto 70% patients of moderate to severe migraine C. Needs to be continued lifelong without interruption D. Reduces the severity but increases the frequency of migraine attacks

Last Answer : B. Benefits upto 70% patients of moderate to severe migraine

The absorption of glucose in the digestive tract (A) Occurs in the small intestine (B) Is stimulated by the hormone Glucagon (C) Occurs more rapidly than the absorption of any other sugar (D) Is impaired in cases of diabetes mellitus

Description : The absorption of glucose in the digestive tract (A) Occurs in the small intestine (B) Is stimulated by the hormone Glucagon (C) Occurs more rapidly than the absorption of any other sugar (D) Is impaired in cases of diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : A

Which of the following is true concerning a 68 year old male with type 2 diabetes diagnosed with type IV renal tubal acidosis? 1) Aminoaciduria would be expected. 2) Fludrocortisone treatment is effective 3) Increased Glomerular filtration rate is expected. 4) Increased urinary bicarbonate would be expected. 5) Normal renal handling of K+ and H+

Description : Which of the following is true concerning a 68 year old male with type 2 diabetes diagnosed with type IV renal tubal acidosis? 1) Aminoaciduria would be expected. 2) Fludrocortisone treatment is effective ... 4) Increased urinary bicarbonate would be expected. 5) Normal renal handling of K+ and H+

Last Answer : Answers-2 H+ secretion, sodium reabsorption and ammonia production diminishes. RTA 4 is in effect hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism or failure of aldosterone action and thus helped treated with ... particularly. Aminoaciduria and increased urine bicarbonate are features of RTA types 1 and 2.

Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Description : Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale

Apart from diarrhoea, oral rehydration solution has been employed in: A. Severe vomiting B. Burn cases C. Heat stroke D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Description : Apart from diarrhoea, oral rehydration solution has been employed in: A. Severe vomiting B. Burn cases C. Heat stroke D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Description : ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Last Answer : C. Acute rheumatic feve

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Description : Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Proguanil

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct