Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. Cisapride
Description : Select the correct statement regarding the antiemetic efficacy of the three prokinetic drugs metoclopramide, domperidone and cisapride: A. Cisapride is the most effective B. Metoclopramide is the most effective C. Domperidone is the most effective D. All three are equally efficacious
Last Answer : B. Metoclopramide is the most effective
Description : The progastrokinetic action of the following drug(s) is attenuated by atropine: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C
Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon
Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide
Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron
Last Answer : C. Domperidone
Description : Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects
Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect
Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid
Last Answer : A. Ondansetron
Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects
Last Answer : A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis
Description : Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity
Last Answer : A. Very long duration of action
Description : Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold
Last Answer : B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances
Description : The extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotic drug therapy which does not respond to central anticholinergics is: A. Parkinsonism B. Acute muscle dystonia C. Rabbit syndrome D. Tardive dyskinesia
Last Answer : D. Tardive dyskinesia
Description : Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect
Last Answer : A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy
Description : Prokinetic drugs serve the following purpose(s) in gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus B. Promote healing of esophagitis C. Reduce acidity of gastric contents D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : A. Reduce reflux of gastric contents into esophagus
Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Description : A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine
Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid
Last Answer : B. Pyridoxine
Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate
Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors
Description : ___________ is indicated in agitation and restlessness in the elderly, despite the high incidence of extrapyramidal side-effects. a) Prochlorperazine b) Clozapine c) Haloperidol d) Flupentixol
Last Answer : c) Haloperidol
Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above
Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Cisapride enhances gastrointestinal motility by: A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor B. Activating muscarinic M3 receptor C. Blocking dopamine D2 receptor D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor
Description : The following is a selective 5-HT4 agonist: A. Buspirone B. Sumatriptan C. Cisapride D. Clozapine
Last Answer : C. Cisapride
Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects
Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic
Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse
Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers
Description : The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools and fine tremors is characteristically associated with the following psychotropic drug: A. Amitriptyline B. Lithium carbonate C. Lorazepam D. Buspirone
Last Answer : B. Lithium carbonate
Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines
Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop
Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect
Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus
Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation
Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting
Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own
Description : Ganglion blocking drugs are no longer used in therapeutics because: A. They have few and weak pharmacological actions B. They produce many side effects C. They are inactive by oral route D. They have short duration of action
Last Answer : B. They produce many side effects
Description : Cancer chemotherapy induced vomiting that is not controlled by metoclopramide alone can be suppressed by combining it with: A. Amphetamine B. Dexamethasone C. Hyoscine D. Cyclizine
Last Answer : B. Dexamethasone
Description : The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine
Last Answer : B. Ondansetron
Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2
Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4
Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action
Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action
Description : Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis
Last Answer : B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
Description : The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase
Description : 16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : C. Bromocriptine
Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine
Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate
Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. Allopurinol
Description : The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil
Last Answer : B. Nifedipine
Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma
Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects
Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. Levodopa
Description : Fluconazole offers the following advantage(s) over ketoconazole: A. It is longer acting B. Its absorption from stomach is not dependent on gastric acidity C. It produces fewer side effects D. All of the above