Description : What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic ... to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T
Last Answer : C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure
Description : A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis
Last Answer : C. Side effect of the drug
Description : What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed ... Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
Last Answer : B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam
Description : At a single hypnotic dose, the pharmacokinetics of diazepam is characterised by: A. Slow elimination and little redistribution B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution C. Rapid elimination and marked redistribution D. Ultra rapid elimination
Last Answer : B. Slow elimination with marked redistribution
Description : Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia: A. Diazepam B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) C. Ergotamine D. Phenytoin
Last Answer : B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Description : In regard to third molar surgery: A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours B. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swelling C. Antibiotic cover is compulsory
Last Answer : A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours
Description : Carcasses are chilled for 24 to ____ hours before being graded and processed. a. 36 c. 72 b. 48 d. 96
Last Answer : b. 48
Description : What precaution should be taken with a vessel's impressed current cathodic protection system after a drydocking period during which the hull has been painted? A. Output currents should be carefully monitored ... slight (10-15%) overcurrent to the anodes should be allowed in order to speed drying.
Last Answer : Answer: C
Description : A server crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is 30 days. When this happens, it takes 12 hours to reboot it, that is, the Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is 12 ... these reliability data values is approximately: (A) 96.3% (B) 97.3% (C) 98.3% (D) 99.3%
Last Answer : (C) 98.3%
Description : The main purpose of periodontal treatment is, A. Elimination of plaque and calculus B. Elimination of periodontal pockets C. Reformation of all the periodontal ligaments D. The elimination of all occlusal trauma
Last Answer : A. Elimination of plaque and calculus
Description : In regard to apically displaced flap, what is TRUE: A. Does not preserve attached gingivae B. Does not lengthen crown of tooth C. Is a pocket elimination procedure D. A & C
Last Answer : C. Is a pocket elimination procedure
Description : In how many different ways can the letters of the word DESIGN be arranged so that the vowels are at the two ends? a) 48 b) 66 c) 12 d) 72 e) 96
Last Answer : Total ways = 4 ! x 2 ! = 4 × 3 × 2 x 2= 48 Answer: a)
Description : The power in a electromagnetic wave with electric field and magnetic field intensities 12 and 8 respectively is a) 96 b) 12 c) 8 d) 48
Last Answer : d) 48
Description : Find the flux density at the boundary when the charge density is given by 24 units. a) 12 b) 24 c) 48 d) 96
Last Answer : b) 24
Description : Find the resistance of a cylinder of area 200 units and length 100m with conductivity of 12 units. a) 1/24 b) 1/48 c) 1/12 d) 1/96
Last Answer : a) 1/24
Description : In the following question, select the related number pair from the given alternatives. Options: 1) 48 : 96 2) 24:50 3) 12:50 4) 31: 63
Last Answer : Correct Answer: 48 : 96
Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously ... rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.
Last Answer : d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.
Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin
Last Answer : B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time
Description : It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg
Last Answer : (B) 300 mg
Description : All of the following should be considered for systemic antibiotic except: A. Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute. C. ... of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis D. Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease
Last Answer : B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute.
Description : A box contains 2 pink balls, 3 brown balls and 4 blue balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least one brown ball is to be included in the draw? A) 32 B) 48 C) 64 D) 96 E) None
Last Answer : Answer: C)
Description : What is the perimeter of the sector with radius 10.5 cm and sector angle 60o? (a) 48 cm (b) 96 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 32 cm
Last Answer : (d) 32 cm
Description : The digits of a two-digit number are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is bigger than the original number by 27.What is the original number? 1. 63 2. 48 3. 96 4. 69 5. 66
Last Answer : Answer- 4 (69) Explanation:- lets digit at tens and ones place be 2x and 3x So,number is 2x*10 + 3x After interchanging number will be 3x*10 +2x so, [3x*10 +2x] – [2x*10 + 3x]27 we get,x=3 so number =69
Description : In a diagnostic test in mathematics given to students, the following marks (out of 100) are recorded 46, 52, 48, 11, 41, 62, 54, 53, 96, 40, 98 and 44. -Maths 9th
Last Answer : NEED ANSWER
Last Answer : Median will be a good representative of the data, because 1.each value occurs once. 2.the data is influenced by extreme values.
Description : What is the gcf of 28 48 and 96?
Last Answer : The GCF is 4.
Description : How much times does 48 go into 96?
Last Answer : twotwice48 + 48 = 9696/48 = 2
Description : How many telegraph channels are there in the basic voice band channels? A. 24 B. 96 C. 48 D. 672
Last Answer : A. 24
Description : Find the work done moving a charge 2C having potential V = 24volts is a) 96 b) 24 c) 36 d) 48
Description : The percentage of P2O5 in diammonium hydrogen phosphate (NH4)2HPO4 is [CPMT 1992] (A) 23.48 (B) 46.96 (C) 53.78 (D) 71.00
Last Answer : (C) 53.78
Description : The total age of x and y is 48 years more than the total age of y and z. z is how many year younger than x a) 44 b) 24 c) 96 d) 48
Last Answer : D Given that x+y = 48 + y+ z x – z= 48 + y – y = 48 z is younger than x by 48 years
Description : There are three different categories of jobs A, B and C. The average salary of the students who got the job of A and B categories is Rs.32 lakh per annum. The average salary of the student who got the job of B ... 30 & 44 B) lies between 48 & 56 C) lies between 38 & 45 D) lies between 49 & 50
Last Answer : Answer: C) Let the number of students who got the jobs of A, B and C categories is a, b and c respectively, ∴Total salary of Aand B = 32 (a +b) ∴Total salary of B and C = 54 (b+ ... the minimum salary must be Rs.38 lakh and the maximum salary cannot exceed 45, which is the highest of the three..
Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include : (A) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose (B) Elimination half-life remains constant, (C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose (D) Amount of drug excreted through remains constant
Last Answer : (C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose
Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life
Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine
Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria
Description : The following is true of clofazimine except: A. It is cidal to Mycobacterium leprae B. It has additional antiinflammatory property C. It has a very long elimination half life D. It discolours skin and sweat
Last Answer : A. It is cidal to Mycobacterium leprae
Description : Teicoplanin has the following feature(s): A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin B. Long elimination half-life C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes
Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin
Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin
Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life
Last Answer : A. Generation of an active metabolit
Description : Compared to pork/beef insulins, the human insulins: A. Are more potent B. Have a faster kinetics of absorption and elimination C. Have longer biological action half life D. Penetrate blood-brain barrier more efficiently
Last Answer : B. Have a faster kinetics of absorption and elimination
Description : The loading dose of a drug is governed by its: A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. Volume of distribution D. Elimination rate constant
Last Answer : C. Volume of distribution
Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period
Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant
Description : The batting average of runs of a cricket player of 30 innings was 96. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 12? A) 468 b) 668 C) 648 D) 486
Last Answer : A Given that the total average runs of a cricket player (30 innings) = 96 After 31 innings = 108 Required number of runs = (108 * 31 – (96 *30) =3348 – 2880 =468
Description : When considering visible light cured composites, which of the following statements is incorrect? A. An air-inhibited layer is present superficially on the composite. B. The wavelength of the light which affects ... composite. (smaller particles absorb more light) D. B and C E. All are true
Last Answer : E. All are true
Description : An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... - Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.
Last Answer : a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide
Description : Which of the following procedures will not achieve sterilization: A. Hot air at 160ºC for 90mins B. Boiling water at 100ºC for 2 hours C. Autoclave at 121ºC under 15psi for 20 mins D. Dry heat at 177ºC for 60mins E. All of the above will achieve sterilisation
Last Answer : B. Boiling water at 100ºC for 2 hours