In what range is GPWS operative?  
a. 2450 – 0 ft  
b. 3000 – 50 ft  
c. 2450 – 50 ft  
d. 3000 – 0 ft

1 Answer

Answer :

c. 2450 – 50 ft

Related questions

Description : . In what range is GPWS operative? a. 2450 – 0 ft b. 3000 – 50 ft c. 2450 – 50 ft d. 3000 – 0 ft

Last Answer : c. 2450 – 50 ft

Description : At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes

Last Answer : a. Inoperative

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

Description : Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30,065 ft pressure level (FL 300)? a. 200 hPa b. 700 hPa c. 500 hPa d. 300 hPa

Last Answer : d. 300 hPa

Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. a. 20,660 ft b. 21,740 ft c. 18,260 ft d. 19, 340 ft

Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft

Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft

Last Answer : c. 6300 ft

Description : An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent? a. 500 ft/min b. 300 ft/min c. 250 ft/min d. 600 ft/min

Last Answer : a. 500 ft/min

Description : The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within: a. 3% of range b. 1.25% of range c. 0.5nm d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

Last Answer : d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

Description : The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 88 to 108 MHz c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Last Answer : d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Description : What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate

Last Answer : d. Decreased sink rate

Description : Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts? a. B b. E c. D d. C

Last Answer : d. C

Description : An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft

Last Answer : c. 36,100ft

Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Last Answer : a. 3.5nm

Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

Description : The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Last Answer : b. The DME is trying to lock onto range

Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track

Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Description : How do misty/foggy conditions affect the pilot's judgment on the approach? a. Underestimating range due to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass b. Underestimating range due to the ... to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim

Last Answer : d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Last Answer : b. 2800kg

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

Description : Vibrating screens have capacity in the range of __________ tons/ft 2 .mm mesh size. (A) 0.2 to 0.8 (B) 5 to 25 (C) 50 to 100 (D) 100 to 250

Last Answer : (A) 0.2 to 0.8

Description : How much money must be deposited today to become 2450 in 20 years at 8.5 compounded continuously?

Last Answer : 479.26 needs to be invested to get to 2450 after 20 years at8.5% compound interest.

Description : Ganesha, Harish and Raghu started a business with investments of Rs.15000, Rs.18000 and Rs.21000. At the end of the one year, they earned a total profit of Rs.5400. Find the respective shares of Ganesh, Harish ... profit (in Rs.) a)1500,1800,2100 b)1360,1800,2240 c)1750,2100,2450 d)1890,2100,2310 

Last Answer : a)1500,1800,2100

Description : A 10 kilogram object falls from a cliff 100 meters high. At the midpoint of its fall its total energy is: w) 2450 Joules x) 4900 Joules y) 10,000 Joules z) 20,000 Joules

Last Answer : ANSWER: Y -- 10,000 JOULES

Description : The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is: a. 5000.0N00527.0E b. N50E00527 c. N5000.0E00527.0 d. N5000E00527

Last Answer : c. N5000.0E00527.0

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll

Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1

Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Last Answer : c. 99kt

Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw

Last Answer : c. Augments stability

Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Last Answer : b. increased

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

Last Answer : c. The elevators

Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

Description : To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb ... at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

Last Answer : d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

Description : Which of the following increases the stall angle? a. Slats b. Flaps c. Spoilers d. Ailerons

Last Answer : a. Slats

Description : Which stall has the greatest angle of attack? a. Low speed stall b. High speed stall (shock stall) c. Deep stall d. Accelerated stall

Last Answer : c. Deep stall