The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

The control surface which gives longitudinal control is:  
a. The rudder  
b. The ailerons  
c. The elevators  
d. The flaps
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. The elevators
by

Related questions

In recovery from a spin: a. Ailerons should be kept neutral b. Airspeed increases c. Ailerons used to stop the spin d. Rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin direction

Description : In recovery from a spin: a. Ailerons should be kept neutral b. Airspeed increases c. Ailerons used to stop the spin d. Rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin direction

Last Answer : a. Ailerons should be kept neutral

Which of the following increases the stall angle? a. Slats b. Flaps c. Spoilers d. Ailerons

Description : Which of the following increases the stall angle? a. Slats b. Flaps c. Spoilers d. Ailerons

Last Answer : a. Slats

The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150ft/mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it into the surface c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first

If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll

What is the purpose of inboard ailerons? a. To reduce wing bending at high speed b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed c. To reduce wing bending at low speed d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

Description : What is the purpose of inboard ailerons? a. To reduce wing bending at high speed b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed c. To reduce wing bending at low speed d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

Last Answer : d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw

Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw

Last Answer : c. Augments stability

To recover from a spin, the elevators should be: a. Moved up to increase the angle of attack b. Moved down to reduce the angle of attack c. Set to neutral d. Allowed to float

Description : To recover from a spin, the elevators should be: a. Moved up to increase the angle of attack b. Moved down to reduce the angle of attack c. Set to neutral d. Allowed to float

Last Answer : b. Moved down to reduce the angle of attack

If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Last Answer : b. increased

To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx) c. Flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

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Last Answer : d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate

Description : What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate

Last Answer : d. Decreased sink rate

Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

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Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin? a. When V2 is reached b. When 35 feet is reached c. When flaps are up d. When gear and flaps are up

Description : When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin? a. When V2 is reached b. When 35 feet is reached c. When flaps are up d. When gear and flaps are up

Last Answer : b. When 35 feet is reached

To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Description : To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Last Answer : b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point

The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20kts minimum is: a. 3 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes

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Last Answer : c. 5 minutes

To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

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Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

A cylinder head temperature gauge measures: a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two

Description : A cylinder head temperature gauge measures: a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two

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The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range

Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence? a. Lights winds near the surface b. Strong winds near the surface c. Marked vertical wind shear d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

Description : Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence? a. Lights winds near the surface b. Strong winds near the surface c. Marked vertical wind shear d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

Last Answer : a. Lights winds near the surface

The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH

Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH

Last Answer : a. QNE

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Last Answer : c. GROUND

An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 8km b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km c. 1500m horizontally and 1000m vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

Description : An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with ... visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

Last Answer : b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km

What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from ... . 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Last Answer : d. The same as Class D

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

The best strategies to increase stress tolerance are: a. Planning, experience and self-control (fewer unexpected situation) b. Learning, experience and anticipation c. Learning, experience and CRM d. Planning, experience and CRM

Description : The best strategies to increase stress tolerance are: a. Planning, experience and self-control (fewer unexpected situation) b. Learning, experience and anticipation c. Learning, experience and CRM d. Planning, experience and CRM

Last Answer : c. Learning, experience and CRM

Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves

Description : How do you control power in a jet engine? a. By controlling the mixture ratio b. By controlling the fuel flow c. By controlling the airflow d. By controlling the bleed valves

Last Answer : b. By controlling the fuel flow

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture

A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Description : A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to ... freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

Last Answer : b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

As shown in the illustrations, ordered rudder angle is fed back from the ________________. EL-0097 A. power unit to the magnetic amplifier B. steering gear to the control potentiometer C. magnetic amplifier to the steering gear D. rudder yoke to the non-followup controller

Description : As shown in the illustrations, ordered rudder angle is fed back from the ________________. EL-0097 A. power unit to the magnetic amplifier B. steering gear to the control potentiometer C. magnetic amplifier to the steering gear D. rudder yoke to the non-followup controller

Last Answer : Answer: A

What common shipboard system does figure 'A' represent? EL-0092 A. Navigational running lights B. Rudder angle indicator C. Sound powered telephone D. Winch speed control

Description : What common shipboard system does figure 'A' represent? EL-0092 A. Navigational running lights B. Rudder angle indicator C. Sound powered telephone D. Winch speed control

Last Answer : Answer: B

What is the purpose of inboard ailerons

Description : What is the purpose of inboard ailerons

Last Answer : D. to reduce wing twist at high speed

What is the purpose of inboard ailerons? a. To reduce wing bending at high speed b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed c. To reduce wing bending at low speed d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

Description : What is the purpose of inboard ailerons? a. To reduce wing bending at high speed b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed c. To reduce wing bending at low speed d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

Last Answer : d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1

What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true airspeed and angle of attack c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed

Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack