A cylinder head temperature gauge measures: a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two

A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:  
a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder  
b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading  
c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder  
d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder
by

Related questions

A cylinder head temperature gauge measures: a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two

Description : A cylinder head temperature gauge measures: a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two

Last Answer : a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder

The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Description : The EGT indication on a piston engine is used: a. To control the cooling air shutters b. To monitor the oil temperature c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

Last Answer : c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture

A Cylinder Temperature Gauge measures

Description : A Cylinder Temperature Gauge measures

Last Answer : A. The temperature of the hottest cylinder

A Cylinder Temperature Gauge measures

Description : A Cylinder Temperature Gauge measures

Last Answer : A. The temperature of the hottest cylinder

Consider a disk queue with request for input/output to block on cylinders 98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67 in that order. Assume that disk head is initially positioned at cylinder 53 and moving towards cylinder number 0. The total number of head movements using Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF) and SCAN algorithms are respectively (A) 236 and 252 cylinders (B) 640 and 236 cylinders (C) 235 and 640 cylinders (D) 235 and 252 cylinders

Description : Consider a disk queue with request for input/output to block on cylinders  98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67  in that order. Assume that disk head is initially positioned at cylinder 53 and moving ... and 252 cylinders (B) 640 and 236 cylinders (C) 235 and 640 cylinders (D) 235 and 252 cylinders

Last Answer : Answer: 236 and 208 cylinders Explanation: SSTF Initial head position =53 The closest queue to initial head position=65 head moves from 53 to 65=12 head moves from 65 to 67=2 head moves from 67 ... 122=24 head moves from 122 to 124=2 head moves from 124 to 183=59 Total head movement=208 

Consider a disk queue with I/O requests on the following cylinders in their arriving order: 6,10,12,54,97,73,128,15,44,110,34,45 The disk head is assumed to be at cylinder 23 and moving in the direction of decreasing number of cylinders. Total number of cylinders in the disk is 150. The disk head movement using SCAN-scheduling algorithm is: (1) 172 (2) 173 (3) 227 (4) 228

Description : Consider a disk queue with I/O requests on the following cylinders in their arriving order: 6,10,12,54,97,73,128,15,44,110,34,45 The disk head is assumed to be at cylinder 23 and moving in the direction ... . The disk head movement using SCAN-scheduling algorithm is: (1) 172 (2) 173 (3) 227 (4) 228

Last Answer : (2) 173

hen displacement volume is divided by piston displacement, what will we obtained (a) number of cylinders (b) number of power stroke per minute for all cylinders (c) number of revolution of the crankshaft (engine) (d) number of revolution of crankshaft × number of cylinder

Description : hen displacement volume is divided by piston displacement, what will we obtained (a) number of cylinders (b) number of power stroke per minute for all cylinders (c) number of revolution of the crankshaft (engine) (d) number of revolution of crankshaft × number of cylinder

Last Answer : (b) number of power stroke per minute for all cylinders

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

Description : If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent ... d. Locate and move the device to the least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible

Last Answer : d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

A pressure head is subject to the following errors: a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature b. Position, manoeuvre induced c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

Description : A pressure head is subject to the following errors: a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature b. Position, manoeuvre induced c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

Last Answer : d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

If three cylinders of radius r and height h are placed vertically such that the curved surface of each cylinder touches the curved surfaces -Maths 9th

Description : If three cylinders of radius r and height h are placed vertically such that the curved surface of each cylinder touches the curved surfaces -Maths 9th

Last Answer : hr2 (3-√−π2)(3−π2) The bases of the three cylinders when placed as given are as shown in the figure : Let the radius of the base of each cylinder = r cm. We are required to find the volume of air. ... ∠C = 60º) = 3 x 60o360o πr2=πr2260o360o πr2=πr22 ∴ Required volume = (3-√r2−π2r2)h=(3-√−π2)r2h.

An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

Description : An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

Last Answer : c. Less than the real altitude

The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

Last Answer : c. The elevators

To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible

A hydraulic accumulator comprises of (A) A storage device and a control valve (B) A cylinder and a plunger (C) Two pistons and two cylinders (D) A storage tank and a ram pump

Description : A hydraulic accumulator comprises of (A) A storage device and a control valve (B) A cylinder and a plunger (C) Two pistons and two cylinders (D) A storage tank and a ram pump

Last Answer : (B) A cylinder and a plunger

Tandem master cylinder consists of (A) One cylinder and one reservoir (B) Two cylinders and one reservoir (C) One cylinder and two reservoirs (D) Two cylinders and two reservoirs

Description : Tandem master cylinder consists of (A) One cylinder and one reservoir (B) Two cylinders and one reservoir (C) One cylinder and two reservoirs (D) Two cylinders and two reservoirs

Last Answer : (D) Two cylinders and two reservoirs

The compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor  a. Single Staging  b. Double Staging  c. Multistaging  d. None of the above

Description : The compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor  a. Single Staging  b. Double Staging  c. Multistaging  d. None of the above

Last Answer : Multistaging

In a morse test for a 2 cylinder, 2 S SI engine, the brake power was 9 kW. Whereas the brake power of individual cylinders with spark cut off were 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW. The mecheffic of the engine is (a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 45.5% (d) 52.5%

Description : In a morse test for a 2 cylinder, 2 S SI engine, the brake power was 9 kW. Whereas the brake power of individual cylinders with spark cut off were 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW. The mecheffic of the engine is (a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 45.5% (d) 52.5%

Last Answer : Ans :a

Cylinder having inner diameter to wall thickness ratio less than 15 are a) Thin cylinders b) Thick Cylinders c) Moderate cylinders d) none of the above

Description : Cylinder having inner diameter to wall thickness ratio less than 15 are a) Thin cylinders b) Thick Cylinders c) Moderate cylinders d) none of the above

Last Answer : b) Thick Cylinders

A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral.

Description : A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral. (A) A potential ... difference appears between the two cylinders when same charge density is given to both the cylinders

Last Answer : (A) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the inner cylinder

A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo

What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Last Answer : d. Instruments

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

What are the names the planets in order from closest to the Sun to the furthest away from the Sun?

Description : What are the names the planets in order from closest to the Sun to the furthest away from the Sun?

Last Answer : Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, andNeptune are the eight known planets of our Solar System.

What are the names the planets in order from closest to the Sun to the furthest away from the Sun?

Description : What are the names the planets in order from closest to the Sun to the furthest away from the Sun?

Last Answer : Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, andNeptune are the eight known planets of our Solar System.

During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting

The greater the pressure gradient the: a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind d. Further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind

Description : The greater the pressure gradient the: a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind d. Further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind

Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for runway 16 1500m, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100m b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m, vertical visibility 100ft, fog with hoar frost c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

An inversion is: a. A decrease of pressure with height b. A decrease of temperature with height c. An increase of temperature with height d. An increase of pressure with height

Description : An inversion is: a. A decrease of pressure with height b. A decrease of temperature with height c. An increase of temperature with height d. An increase of pressure with height

Last Answer : c. An increase of temperature with height

Generally, as altitude increases: a. Temperature decreases and density increases b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases c. Temperature and pressure increase and density decreases d. Temperature decreases and pressure and density increase

Description : Generally, as altitude increases: a. Temperature decreases and density increases b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases c. Temperature and pressure increase and density decreases d. Temperature decreases and pressure and density increase

Last Answer : b. Temperature, pressure and density decreases

How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

What causes wind? a. Difference in pressure b. Rotation of the earth c. Frontal systems d. Difference in temperature

Description : What causes wind? a. Difference in pressure b. Rotation of the earth c. Frontal systems d. Difference in temperature

Last Answer : a. Difference in pressure

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account? a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight

Description : For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account? a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight

Last Answer : a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight

You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: a. Remain approximately constant b. Increase by 10 kts c. Decrease by 10 kts d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA

Description : You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: a. Remain approximately constant b. Increase by 10 kts c. Decrease by 10 kts d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA

Last Answer : a. Remain approximately constant

Total Air Temperature is: a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor d. The recovery factor plus the ram rise

Description : Total Air Temperature is: a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor d. The recovery factor plus the ram rise

Last Answer : a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Description : When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Last Answer : a. Transmit the message twice

Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion? a. Aircraft T experiences more icing than S b. Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing c. Neither of the aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision? a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew b. Consider all implications c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

Description : What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision? a. Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew b. Consider all implications c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion d. Monitor his motor programme (flying)

Last Answer : c. Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion

The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked

Description : The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance ... and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked

Last Answer : b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable