Description : An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease ... d) rectovaginal fistula. A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.
Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.
Description : When the nurse observes that the postoperative patient demonstrates a constant low level of oxygen saturation, although the patient's breathing appears normal, the nurse identifies that the patient may ... , and cardiac arrest. d) Anemic Anemic hypoxemia results from blood loss during surgery.
Last Answer : a) Subacute Supplemental oxygen may be indicated.
Description : What is the term used to describe makeshift shantytowns set up by homeless people during the Great Depression?
Last Answer : Hoovervilles
Description : A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery ... applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.
Last Answer : a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.
Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.
Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.
Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.
Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.
Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.
Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.
Description : Which of the following statements describe refractive surgery? a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is ... a stable refractive error. The corneal structure must be normal and refractive error stable.
Last Answer : a) Refractive surgery is an elective, cosmetic surgery performed to reshape the cornea. Refractive surgery is an elective procedure and is considered a cosmetic procedure (to achieve clear vision without ... is performed to reshape the cornea for the purpose of correction of all refractive errors.
Description : The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent ... is noted. Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.
Last Answer : a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.
Description : Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient's body and used on another part of that same patient's body? a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle ... A heterograft is a graft obtained from an animal of a species other than that of the recipient.
Last Answer : a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.
Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral ... Urethritis Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted disease.
Last Answer : a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.
Description : The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid. b) semi- ... colostomy, the feces are mushy. d) fluid. With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.
Last Answer : a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid.
Description : When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient's own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the ... and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.
Last Answer : a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement.
Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.
Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.
Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation
Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).
Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.
Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.
Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.
Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.
Description : In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be ... hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.
Last Answer : a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.
Description : 76. A client is being positioned for radical vulvectomy and a couple of clinical clerks wanted to come in to watch the surgery. The circulating nurse advise them to enter the OR suite later. Foremost, this decision of the nurse is directed towards
Last Answer : D. Preserving privacy
Description : 73. When the client returns to the unit after surgery, which technique is most appropriate to monitor bleeding from the incision?
Last Answer : B. Assess for dampness at the back of the client’s neck
Description : 72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?
Last Answer : A. It decreases the risk of bleeding
Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion
Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression
Description : Is there a way to turn our griddle into a makeshift oven?
Last Answer : Try this = = = > Coleman Camp Oven.
Description : If a window on your car is smashed in, what's the best way to improvise a makeshift window until you can get it fixed?
Last Answer : Side window, front or back?
Description : Is this an 'old wives tale' about underwear or has this happened to you?
Last Answer : My mother fulminated against using a safety pin to repair a bra strap. I have had to be rushed to the ER only once in my life and I was wearing clean underwear, shorts and a T. I certainly didn’t care, given the state I was in.
Description : Tough question. What happens to the body during the final days of life?
Last Answer : You have them right except we looked for mottling in their legs. The person loses consciousness as well. All families become so exhausted.
Description : Which of the following refers to a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication for any emergency situation? a) The Incident Command System The ... emergency preparedness required by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO).
Last Answer : a) The Incident Command System The Incident Command System (ICS) is a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment and communication for any emergency situation. The federal government mandates ... are used at the level of an individual hospital's emergency response plan as well.
Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.
Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
Description : Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, ... the incident is put into perspective. Some patients never fully recover from rape trauma.
Last Answer : a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.
Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.
Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.
Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.
Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.
Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.
Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site
Description : Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep ... and movement times Strength and agility are diminished and reaction and movement times are decreased.
Last Answer : a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.
Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.
Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.
Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.
Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.
Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.
Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.
Description : During which stage of the immune response does the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node? a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte ... cellular response reaches and couples with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader.
Last Answer : a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate.
Description : In order to be effective, Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial ... during which streptokinase will not be used again in the same patient for acute MI.
Last Answer : a) 60 minutes The sixty minute interval is known as “door to balloon time” for performance of PTCA on a diagnosed MI patient.
Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.
Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).
Description : When the nurse observes that the patient's heart rate increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration, the nurse reports that the patient is demonstrating a) sinus dysrhythmia. Sinus dysrhythmia ... occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate.
Last Answer : a) sinus dysrhythmia. Sinus dysrhythmia occurs when the sinus node creates an impulse at an irregular rhythm.
Description : Which of the following terms describes the amount of blood ejected per heartbeat? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is determined by preload, afterload, and contractility. b) Cardiac output Cardiac output ... must overcome to eject blood during systole and is one of the determinants of stroke volume.
Last Answer : a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is determined by preload, afterload, and contractility.
Description : Which of the following community-acquired pneumonias demonstrates the highest occurrence during summer and fall? a) Legionnaires' disease Legionnaires' disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired ... . d) Viral pneumonia Viral pneumonia demonstrates the greatest incidence during winter months.
Last Answer : a) Legionnaires’ disease Legionnaires’ disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired pneumonias.
Description : Which of the following terms refers to lung tissue that has become more solid in nature due to a collapse of alveoli or infectious process? a) Consolidation Consolidation occurs during an ... chronic infection. d) Empyema Empyema refers to accumulation of purulent material in the pleural space.
Last Answer : a) Consolidation Consolidation occurs during an infectious process such as pneumonia.
Description : When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A ... wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.
Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.
Description : In relation to the structure of the larynx, the cricoid cartilage is a) the only complete cartilaginous ring in the larynx. The cricoid cartilage is located below the thyroid cartilage. b) used ... The epiglottis is the valve flap of cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing.
Last Answer : a) the only complete cartilaginous ring in the larynx. The cricoid cartilage is located below the thyroid cartilage.
Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.
Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.
Description : Of the following terms, which is used to refer to the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place? a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning ... interdisciplinary care and services provided primarily in the home to terminally ill patients and their families.
Last Answer : a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place.
Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.
Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.
Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.
Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.